March 2024 Recalls

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Flashcards for Microbiology, Parasitology, Histopathology, Clinical Chemistry, ISBB, Hematology and Clinical Microscopy

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138 Terms

1
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Which blot is used in detecting RNA presence?

Northern Blot

2
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What are the correct base pairs?

A;T and G;C

3
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Which of the following is NOT spiral-shaped: Clostridium botulinum, Helicobacter pylori, Treponema pallidum, Vibrio cholerae

Clostridium botulinum

4
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What does the presence of residual chlorine in drinking water indicate?

Sufficient amount of chlorine was added initially to the water

5
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What parasite is acquired through ingestion/inhalation?

E. vermicularis

6
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What do you call the recall stage of parasite MIRACIDIUM?

MIRACIDIUM

7
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How to validate the result of AST?

Testing with a reference organism

8
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Which test is employed in the differentiation of the Enterobacteriaceae family?

IMViC

9
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What is the Pre-Analytical part of Microbiology Testing?

Identify Patient

10
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When is the optimal time to collect E. Vermicularis ova?

Night

11
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How is parasitism expressed when malaria parasite is quantitated against RBC?

Parasite/uL of Blood

12
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Which type of organism is isolated if growth in MAC is pink?

Lactose fermenter

13
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Which method employs heat to facilitate better staining of bacterial cell walls?

Zeihl-Neelsen

14
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A gram stain, on a specimen obtained from an intravascular catheter, showed gram-positive bacteria- what is the most probable cause?

S. aureus

15
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Which of the following is positive for coagulase: Salmonella, S. aureus, Shigella, S. pyogenes

S. aureus

16
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In a MacConkey Agar, what is the color of the lactose-fermenting colonies?

Pink

17
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Which Westgard rule is considered mandatory?

1 2s

18
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Actinomyces are:

Gram-positive bacilli, branching, non-spore forming

19
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Babes-Ernst granules were produced by:

C. diptheriae

20
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what is the McFarland standard?

1.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml

21
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What is the characteristic odor of Proteus?

Burnt chocolate odor

22
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What is the most sensitive test for Chlamydia?

NAAT

23
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What is NOT a part of microorganism resistance?

ag-ab complex

24
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What is the best method for monitoring malaria?

Microscopy

25
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What is a source of nitrogen?

Yeast extract, Peptone, beef extract and Meat extract

26
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All of the following are parasite:infective stage EXCEPT: Strongyloides stercoralis: Rhabditiform larva, Ascaris lumbricoides : Embryonated egg, Ancylostoma duodenale : Filariform larva, Trichuris trichuria : Embryonated egg

Strongyloides stercoralis: Rhabditiform larva

27
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Where should Acknowledgements be placed in a research paper?

End of the paper

28
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What is the outer region of an organ?

SEROSA

29
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What staining components of the Papanicolau stain stains nothing?

Bismarck Brown Y

30
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Perls' Prussian blue reaction for Ferric Iron?

1% aqueous potassium ferrocyanide 2% aqueous hydrochloric acid

31
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What does Z-score represent?

Measures how many standard deviations above or below the mean a data point is

32
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All of the following are components of Bouin's solution, EXCEPT: Ethanol, Glacial Acetic Acid, Saturated Picric Acid, Formaldehyde

Ethanol

33
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Enumerate Newborn Screening INCLUDED?

CAH, G6PD deficiency, Congenital hypothyroidism

34
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How early is filing for the MTLE?

3 Months

35
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What is the reference laboratory for HIV testing?

San Lazaro Hospital/SACCL

36
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Caused by friction against a rough surface:

Abrasion

37
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Transition between dehydration and infiltration of embedding medium:

Clearing

38
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Key factors for quality of embedding:

Thickness of Tissue, Duration of fixation, Orientation of tissue, Composition of embedding medium

39
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All of the following are violation of RA 5527 EXCEPT:

Refusal to identify gender identity

40
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What is NOT a component of bouin’s fluid?

ethanol

41
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Best way to communicate patient result to provider?

Electronic

42
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What is the recommended temperature for Formaldehyde fixation?

Ambient temperature/Room temperature

43
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What is NOT physical preservation of tissue.

vapor

44
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A female born with XX chromosomes develops ambiguous genitalia or genitals that appear male. What is this condition?

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

45
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All conditions may be associated with type 3c diabetes mellitus, except:

Autoimmune disease

46
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Which of the following amino acids are composition of creating EXCEPT: glycine, methionine, arginine, cysteine

Cysteine

47
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Relating a measurement result to a stated reference through an unbroken chain of calibrations:

TRACEABILITY

48
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How to best represent liver enzymes?

IU/L

49
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Which part is not a function of the thyroid gland?

Waste excretion

50
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Which characteristics are not true about unconjugated bilirubin?

Also known as direct bilirubin

51
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What specimen is not ideal for drug analysis.

Semen

52
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Which specimen can be preferred for Blood Glucose Determination.

Plasma

53
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The following organs do glycogenolysis EXCEPT:

Stomach

54
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How many minutes does a sample needs to stand before centrifugation?

30 minutes

55
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What is the most common substance abused?

Alcohol

56
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What is NOT the goal of POCT.

Reduce adherent to treatment

57
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What is the best term to describe a scientist has a test with consistent results while using the same methods/ sample/environment?

Replicability

58
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What will you use to neutralize alkaline spill?

Ethanol

59
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Which strategy is performed when POCT-QA issues arises.

Train non-laboratory personnel

60
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What hormone is secreted when there is an increase level of glucose.

Insulin

61
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The following is considered as a liver function test, EXCEPT:

Amylase

62
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4dl to Liter

0.4

63
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What does this formula indicate. Na⁺ + K⁺ – (Cl⁻ + HCO₃ ⁻)

Anion Gap

64
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which of the following is INCORRECT regarding steam sterilization:

Dry heat

65
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What organ produces vasopressin?

Hypothalamus

66
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What is the best marker for risk in diabetic nephropathy?

Microalbuminuria

67
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Which lipoprotein migrates farthest from the anode during electrophoresis?

HDL

68
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What is the purpose of caffeine in the Jendrassik – Grof Method?

Solubilized unconjugated bilirubin

69
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One or two values exceeding the qc parameters not included in counting

Outlier

70
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Enumerate the duration of the disease.

Acute and Chronic

71
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Laboratory equipment hazard EXCEPT:

chemical vapors

72
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Gastric enzyme proteolysis:

Gastrin

73
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Functional plasma enzyme:

Clotting factors

74
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What is NOT an administrative control?

Fume hood

75
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Excess cortisol produces:

Cushing syndrome

76
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Cryoprecipitate AHF contains all of the following, EXCEPT:

Red Blood Cells

77
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Phenotype of D negative:

(-/-)

78
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Sda can be neutralized by?

Human breast milk

79
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The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called:

Pleiotropy

80
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Which minor blood group system can cause HDN?

Gerbich

81
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What is NOT included under Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion reaction?

TA-GVHD

82
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Rh group:

NONGLYCOSYLATED PROTEINS

83
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Improvement methodology referring to non-value added activities considered as waste.

Lean

84
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Possible mother-fetus incompatibility if father is Rh +, mother is Rh - . They have their first child without undergoing treatment.

less than 50%

85
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ABO discrepancies between forward or reverse blood typing with weak reacting or missing antibodies.

Patient with subgroup of Group

86
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Lectin Dolichus biflorus expresses ___ antigen.

A1

87
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The following are correct for storage and transport of blood components EXCEPT

Blood must be stored at -20C

88
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An IF test with antibodies to detect CD3 will detect which cell?

Circulating T cells

89
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How is the patient who is RH negative in a RBC written.

(-/-)

90
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Red cell immune antibody

IgG

91
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CD8+ cell is also known as

Cytotoxic

92
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Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes?

Type 3

93
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The red cell phenotype of an individual in routine forward and reverse grouping with the genotypes hh, AB

O

94
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FFP is used to treat the following EXCEPT:

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

95
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Most common acquired platelet dysfunction:

Drug-induced

96
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Which of the following activates fibrinolysis?

Tissue plasminogen activator

97
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Acute myelomonocytic leukemia:

M4

98
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A reduction in thrombin generation in patients with Scott syndrome results from

Altered expression of phospholipids on the platelet membrane

99
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Fibrinogen/Fibrin fragments EXCEPT:

Fragment Z

100
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“C” in VCS Hematology Coulter Technology:

CONDUCTIVITY