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Chapters 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, and 11 of the SUNY ESF Genetics textbook. These are all of the chapters in Exam 2
Passage of genetic information from one generation to the next is known as _____ transmission
vertical
Which of the following statements about horizontal gene transfer are true? Please select all that apply.
A. Horizontal gene transfer is unidirectional
B. Transposable elements can act as vectors of horizontal gene transfer
C. Horizontal gene transfer is multidirectional
A and B
What is the main function of proteins encoded by the genes on the F plasmid?
A. To create a structural bridge between the donor and recipient cell
B. To decrease replication in the plasmid
C. To increase replication of the plasmid.
A and C
Plasmids can be transferred between bacteria by conjugation. What structure do plasmids adopt during transfer? Please select all that apply.
A. Linear DNA
B. Single-stranded DNA
C. Linear RNA
A and B
Which of the following statements about Agrobacterium tumefaciens are true? Please select all that apply.
Plant cells containing A. tumefaciens DNA act as a source of nutrients for the bacterium
Which of the following statements about viruses are false? Please select all that apply.
A. Viruses can replicate autonomously
B. Viruses can only infect plants
C. Bacterial viruses also infect humans
A and C
Which of the following characteristics are found in retroviruses? Please select all that apply.
A. Retroviruses contain RNA
B. The virus nucleic acid is reverse transcribed
C. The virus genome is integrated into the host genome.
A, B, and C
Fill in the blank. The enzyme encoded by some viruses that allows them to become incorporated into the host genome is called _____
Integrase
True or false? A functional transposable element is a discrete piece of DNA that can catalyze its own movement between genomes.
False
Which of the following statements about transposable elements are true? Please select all that apply.
A. RNA elements are more abundant than DNA elements in the human genome
B. Some transposable elements are derived from viruses
C. Transposase is involved in movement of DNA elements
D. All of the Above
D
Fill in the blank. Most transposable elements have become mutated and have lost the capacity to move on their own. Elements that are capable of moving on their own are termed _____ elements.
Autonomous
The CRISPR mechanism helps bacterial cells defend themselves against foreign DNA. Put the following CRISPR events in order, from first to last.
1.) Foreign DNA enters cell for first time
2.)Protospacers are generated by Cas
3.)Foreign DNA is incorporated into CRISPR array
4.) CRISPR sequence is transcribed
5.) CRISPR RNA is fragmented
6.) sRNA targets foreign DNA for destruction
The CRISPR mechanism helps bacterial cells recognize specific foreign molecules. What other defense systems does CRISPR resemble? Please select all that apply.
A. Adaptive immune system
B. RNA interference
All of the above
How do bacteria avoid destroying their own DNA with their restriction endonucleases?
Bacteria methylate restriction endonuclease recognition sites in their own genome
Which of the following is a defense mechanism used by bacteria against foreign DNA?
Repression of transcription from AT rich DNA
Which of the following natural processes are exploited in molecular biology laboratory experiments? Please select all that apply.
A. Transformation
B. CRISPR
C. Agrobacterium tumefaciens infection
D. Reverse transcription
A, B, C, and D
True or false? The core E. coli genome is about 2 Mb, which is less than half the size of the pan-genome.
True
Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. S. pneumoniae can change rapidly and evade the immune system. Which characteristics of S. pneumoniae facilitate this rapid evolution? Please select all that apply.
A. Capsule genes can only be acquired by lateral transfer
B. S. pneumoniae is naturally competent
C. Capsule genes can be acquired by horizontal transfer
B and C
Which of the following characteristics do scientists use to identify genomic islands in bacteria? Please select all that apply.
A. Similarity to phage sequence
B. High DNA AT%
All of the above
Building phylogenetic trees can be challenging when horizontal transfer has occurred in bacteria. Why?
Genetic differences between organisms are usually assumed to have occurred in a stepwise fashion
A technique similar to transformation is used in the laboratory to introduce DNA into eukaryotic cells. This technique is called _____
Transfection
What is a HFR cell?
A cell in which F factor is integrated into the genome
Which of the following factors can impact sex development? Please select all that apply.
A. Mitosis
B. Environment
C. Sex chromosomes
D. Meiosis
B, C and D
In human pedigrees, which characteristics are likely to underlie an inherited trait that appears in males more frequently than in females? Please select all that apply.
A. Trait is Y-linked
B. Trait is dominant
C. Trait is recessive
D. Trait is X-linked
C and D
In meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair and synapse before segregation in meiosis I. How is it possible for the X and Y chromosomes in humans, which are very different, to pair with one another?
A. The chromosomes are the same size.
B. X pairs with X and Y pairs with Y during meiosis.
C. Some DNA sequences are found on both the X and Y chromosomes.
D. The X and Y chromosomes do not pair during meiosis.
C
Genetic experiments by Thomas Hunt Morgan and colleagues examined eye color in Drosophila fruit flies. Males are XY and females are XX, and the gene responsible for eye color is on the X chromosome. Red eye color (wild-type) is dominant to white eye color (mutant). The wild type allele is denoted Xw+ and the mutant allele is Xw. Which of the statements about eye color in these fruit flies is true?
A. Red-eye females can only produce red-eye offspring.
B. Half of male flies with Xw have white eyes.
C. A cross between red-eye males and red-eye females can produce white-eye males.
D. All female flies with Xw have white eyes.
C
The opsin genes that encode light receptors are on the Y-chromosome in humans, meaning that red-green color blindness is more likely to occur in males than females.
False
What is holandric inheritance?
A. Where males have an extra Y chromosome.
B. Inheritance of genes on the Y-chromosome.
C. Where females have a Y chromosome.
D. Inheritance where recessive traits are observed in males more than in females.
B
Which of the following leads to gametes receiving incorrect numbers of sex chromosomes?
A. Aneuploidy
B. Non-disjunction
C. Synapsis
D. Apoptosis
B
Genetic experiments by Thomas Hunt Morgan and colleagues examined eye color in Drosophila fruit flies. Males are XY and females are XX, and the gene responsible for eye color is on the X chromosome. Red eye color (wild-type) is dominant to white eye color (mutant). The wild type allele is denoted Xw+ and the mutant allele is Xw. Rarely, ova receive two X chromosomes or no X chromosomes. Offspring resulting from these ova helped to determine the factors underlying sex determination in Drosophila. In a cross between Xw/Xwand Xw+/Y, which offspring of faulty ova could be distinguished from normal offspring by phenotype alone? Please select all that apply.
A. XwXwXw+ red-eyed female
B. Xw+O red-eyed male
C. OY
D. XwXwY white-eyed female
B and D
Experiments in Drosophila found that XXY flies were female and XO flies were male. This demonstrated that the number of Y chromosomes was critical in determining sex.
False
Gametes can receive incorrect numbers of sex chromosomes during meiosis. Which of the following statements about chromosome segregation are true? Please select all that apply.
A. Homogametic gametes are produced when chromosome segregation fails at meiosis II.
B. Failure of chromosome separation is more likely at meiosis I than at meiosis II
C. A gamete can receive both X and Y chromosomes only if chromosome separation fails at meiosis I
D. If chromosome separation fails at meiosis II, all the resultant gametes have an abnormal number of chromosomes.
A, B and C
Experiments in mice found that XY individuals missing a small region of the Y chromosome developed as females. This suggested that the presence of a Y chromosome was critical in determining sex.
True
TDF is the major sex-determining component in mammals. What does TDF do?
A. TDF encodes SRY on the Y chromosome.
B. TDF prevents gene expression from the X chromosome.
C. TDF inactivates one of the X chromosomes.
D. TDF stimulates development of testes.
D
Different individuals with additional sex chromosomes display a range of phenotypes. One explanation for this is mosaicism. What leads to mosaicism?
A. Developmental steps are regulated differently in mosaic individuals.
B. Having an extra X chromosome
C. Loss of a chromosome in some cells in the embryo.
D. Aneuploid cells in the developing embryo.
B
Most cases of indeterminate sex in humans, i.e., where chromosomal sex does not agree with the development of secondary sex characteristics, are due to the presence of extra sex chromosomes.
False
Some organisms, e.g., birds, have a ZW/ZZ system of sex determination rather than the XY/XX system that is familiar from mammals. Which of the following characteristics are true of the ZW/ZZ system? Please select all that apply.
A. The sex-determining locus is on the W chromosome.
B. The Z chromosome in birds and the X chromosome in humans are genetically similar.
C. Phenotypes resulting from Z-linked genes show up more frequently in males than in females.
D. The ZW/ZZ and XY/XX systems provide evidence of independent evolution of sex determination.
A and D
Sex is not always inherited.
True
Which of the following are dosage suppression mechanisms? Please select all that apply.
A. X underexpression
B. RNA inactivation
C. Y overexpression
D. X overexpression
E. X-inactivation
A, D and E
Which of the following are true of epigenetic effects? Please select all that apply.
A. The effect is a heritable change in gene activity.
B. The effect is involved in Y chromosome inactivation.
C. The effect is a result of changes in the DNA.
D. The effect is retained in daughter cells.
A and D
Which of the following traits are sex-linked in humans? Please select all that apply.
A. Hemophilia
B. Eye color
C. Colorblindness
D. Testis development
A, C and D
Sex determination is an example of canalization.
True
Which important observation in the Galapagos Islands led to Darwin's development of evolutionary theory?
A. There were unique species on the islands and the mainland.
B. The islands hosted a wide range of wildlife.
C. Wildlife on the islands was different from, but related to, wildlife on the mainland.
D. There was a limited range of wildlife on the islands compared to the mainland
C
Which observation about species in the Galapagos Islands was important for Darwin's development of evolutionary theory?
A. Species were the same on the different islands.
B. Species were suited to survival in their environments.
C. Species could travel easily between the islands.
D. Multiple species could use the same food sources.
B
The Cape Verde Islands and the Galapagos Islands have very different species despite their very similar geological and climatic conditions. What did Darwin suggest explained these differences?
A. Convergent evolution on the different islands.
B. Independent species creation in the different islands.
C. Transfer of species between the Galapagos and Cape Verde Islands.
D. Species migration from nearby landmasses.
D
Blunt beaks in finches in the Galapagos Islands are in the ancestral condition.
True or False?
False
Which phrase describes the process that led to the development of different beaks in Darwin's finches?
A. Convergent Evolution
B. Adaptive Radiation
C. Morphological Contraction
D. Conditional Descent
B
Which of the following explain why divergence and fixation of traits can occur more rapidly on islands compared to other geographical locations? Please select all that apply.
A. Reproductive rates tend to be lower on islands.
B. The founding number of individuals of a species can be small on an island.
C. Species are isolated in an island.
D. Islands have a high rate of species exchange.
B and C
In the phrase, 'ABC1 is involved in transcriptional regulation', ABC1 refers to a gene.
True or False?
False
Which of the following bases are found in DNA? Please select all that apply.
A. T
B. M
C. U
D. G
E. C
F. A
A, D, E, F
The entire DNA sequence of an organism can be determined, and different organisms have many differences in sequence between them. (There are many differences even between members of the same species.) What would be the best way for geneticists to find out which DNA regions were important for a particular trait difference - for example, beak shape in Darwin's finches?
A. Compare sequences between different finch species with different beak shapes.
B. Compare the sequences of finches with sequences of other birds.
C. Identify the species that had most overall differences between the sequences.
D. Compare sequences between members of the same species with different beak shape.
A
Scientists identified several DNA regions that potentially held the sequence that contributed to the different beak shapes in Darwin's finches. What was the next step used to determine which region might be responsible?
A. Sequences were compared to those of related finches from the mainland to see if beak size was similar.
B. Sequences were compared to those from other animals to see if they contained genes that might be involved in beak development.
C. RNA transcription was examined in the different bird species to identify the genes.
D. Protein production was compared in the different bird species to see if they produced different beak proteins.
B
What evidence supported the hypothesis that differences in the ALX1 gene were responsible for beak differences in Darwin's finches? Please select all that apply.
A. ALX1 was expressed at the expected time and location for a gene involved in beak development.
B. ALX1 was found in all the finch DNA sequences.
C. Mammals with defects in ALX1 have facial abnormalities.
D. ALX1 lay in a region of the genome that correlated with a difference in beak shapes.
A, C, D
What type of protein controls when and where genes are expressed?
A. Transcription Factor
B. Translation Factor
C. mRNA
D. DNA Regulator
A.
Which of the following is not a component of DNA?
A. Deoxyribose
B. Phosphate
C. Nucleotide Bases
D. Ribose
d
DNA is polar, with the 5' end referring to a carbon atom on a deoxyribose subunit that is attached to a hydroxyl group.
True or False?
False
The four nitrogenous bases found in DNA are cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine. Which of the following statements regarding the bases is correct?
A. Guanine has a double ring structure and pairs with thymine in the DNA double helix.
B. Thymine is a purine and pairs with adenine in the DNA double helix.
C. Adenine is a pyrimidine and pairs with cytosine in the DNA double helix.
D. Cytosine has a single ring structure and pairs with guanine in the DNA double helix.
D
Which of the DNA sequences is complementary to 5' CGTAAGTA 3'?
A. 5' ATGAATGC 3'
B. 5' GCATTCAT 3'
C. 5' TACTTACG 3'
D. 5' CGTAAGTA 3'
C
Which of the following processes depends on complementary base pairing?
A. Protein Translation
B. All of the options given are.
C. Hybridization
D. RNA Transcription
B
Which of the following statements about proteins and polypeptides is true?
A. Proteins are the building blocks of polypeptides.
B. Proteins are comprised of polypeptides.
C. Polypeptides are produced by transcription whereas proteins are produced by translation.
D. All of the options given are correct.
B
Select one factor that contributes to the higher stability of DNA compared to RNA.
A. DNA contains guanine.
B. DNA has one hydroxyl group.
C. Ribonucleases degrade DNA.
D. DNA is single-stranded.
B
What is cDNA?
A. A DNA molecule that has been spliced.
B. An RNA molecule with cytosine instead of uracil.
C. A DNA copy of an RNA molecule.
D. A DNA molecule used for translation.
C
DNA contains thymine where RNA contains uracil. What are some of the evolutionary advantages for DNA having thymine rather than uracil? Please select all that apply.
A. Cytosine can be readily converted to thymine.
B. Thymine is more limited in its base-pairing than uracil.
C. Thymine base-pairs using three hydrogen bonds.
D. Uracil is recognized by DNA repair systems.
D
What is the transcriptional profile of a cell?
A. The complete set of transcripts it is possible for a cell to produce.
B. The set of transcripts produced by a cell under particular circumstances.
C. The cellular conditions needed to induce transcription.
D. The amount of one transcript produced over the whole of a cell's life
B
Which of the following statements about RNA are true? Please select all that apply.
A. RNA has the same sequence as the coding DNA strand.
B. RNA has the complementary sequence to the antisense DNA strand.
C. RNA has the complementary sequence to the sense DNA strand.
D. RNA has the same sequence as the template DNA strand.
B
A greater proportion of the human genome than bacterial genomes is transcribed.
True or false?
False
Which of the following factors influence the final shape of a polypeptide?
A. The mRNA sequence.
B. The gene sequence.
C. The amino acid sequence.
D. All of the options given are correct.
D
Which of the following characteristics are true of all amino acids? Please select all that apply.
A. They contain sulfur.
B. They contain nitrogen.
C. They are polar.
D. They are hydrophobic.
B and C
Which of the following RNA molecules is not involved in translation?
A. Transfer RNA
B. Ribosomal RNA
C. Messenger RNA
D. Micro RNA
D
How many reading frames does the following mRNA contain?5' AGTCGTGATCAGTCA 3'?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 2
A
At which of the following stages does regulation of gene expression not occur?
A. Transcription
B. Replication
C. Translation
D. Splicing
B
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Introns are removed from mRNA during splicing.
B. An open reading frame is a length of DNA sequence containing multiple start and stop codons.
C. The coding region is removed from mRNA before translation.
D. Open reading frames carry the same information as introns.
A
Which of the following transcription elements is a protein?
A. Core promoter
B. Transcription factor
C. Transcriptional start site
D. Coding region
B
Which of the following techniques would be appropriate for determining the transcription profile of a cell? Please select all that apply.
A. Microarray analysis
B. RNA-seq
C. Translation
D. Electrophoresis
A and B
Which of the following happens during electrophoresis?
A. DNA moves away from the negative pole because of the positive charge on deoxyribose.
B. DNA moves towards the negative pole because of the positive charge on deoxyribose.
C. DNA moves towards the positive pole because of the negative charge on phosphate.
D. DNA moves away from the positive pole because of the negative charge on phosphate.
C
In an evolutionary context, what is fitness?
The likelihood that an organism will survive and reproduce successfully in a given environment.
Which of the following statements regarding natural selection are true? Please select all that apply.
A. Gene sequences must change for natural selection to occur.
B. Phenotype must be affected for natural selection to act on genetic changes.
C. Genotypes increasing in frequency in a population are under positive selection.
D. Selection strength is not affected by the environment.
B and C
Which of the following phenomena results in the largest change of genome size?
Polyploidization
Which of the following statements about bacteria are true? Please select all that apply.
A. Bacterial chromosomes are usually larger than plasmids.
B. Bacterial chromosomes are usually circular.
C. Bacteria usually have multiple chromosomes.
D. Bacteria usually have nuclei.
A and B
Which genome features are generally found in eukaryotes but not in bacteria? Please select all that apply.
A. Centromeres
B. Plasmids
C. Telomeres
D. Chromosomes
A and C
Which of the following features is characteristic of heterochromatin
A. The majority of active genes are found in heterochromatic regions.
B. Heterochromatin appears pale on stained chromosomes.
C. Heterochromatin is densely packed.
D. Chromosomal proteins are not found in heterochromatin.
C
Which if the following features is not characteristic of histones
A. A nucleosome consists of DNA plus a core histone particle.
B. Histones have a negative charge.
C. Histones form an octamer.
D. Histones are highly conserved.
B
Where can extrachromosomal DNA be found in eukaryotes? Please select all that apply.
A. Plasmids
B. Chloroplasts
C. Ribosomes
D. Mitochondria
A, B and D
Genome size and chromosome number tend to increase with organism complexity.
False
Which of the following statements about human chromosomes are true? Please select all that apply.
A. Chromosome 7 is smaller than chromosome 15.
B. The human diploid number is 23.
C. The X chromosome is larger than the Y chromosome.
D. Humans have 46 pairs of chromosomes.
C
The two chromosomes in one pair are referred to as which of the following?
A. Sister chromatids
B. Centromeres
C. Homologous
D. Alleles
C
Sequence differences between homologues are greater than between sister chromatids.
True
Which of the following factors is not considered to be a fundamental property of a gene.
A. Genes consist of DNA sequences.
B. Genes are alleles.
C. Genes are expressed.
D. Genes are inherited.
B
What is a genetic locus?
A. A distance between positions on a genome.
B. A map of all gene positions in a genome.
C. A place in a genome where a gene resides.
D. A specific gene.
C
A random base change is less likely to affect phenotype in humans than in bacteria. Why? Please select all that apply.
A. Less of the human genome is functional than the bacterial genome.
B. A third base change is more likely to occur in bacteria than in humans.
C. A higher percentage of the human genome consists of genes than the bacterial genome.
D. Humans have two copies of a gene whereas bacteria have one copy.
A and D
Which of the following are examples of biological redundancy? Please select all that apply.
A. Multiple pathways exist to carry out a function.
B. Gene families have multiple genes with the same/similar functions.
C. In humans, there are two alleles of most genes.
D. There is more than one codon for most amino acids.
B, C, and D
Orthologs are different members of the same gene family within an organism, whereas paralogs are genes in different species that have shared ancestry, encode similar proteins, and have similar functions.
False
What is copy number variation?
A. Duplication of a genome.
B. A difference in the amount of a specific DNA sequence found in different individuals or species.
C. A substitution of a base for a different base.
D. A sequence that is found in one species but is missing in another species.
B
Which of the following characteristics is not true of gene families?
A. The number of paralogs usually varies widely between individuals in a species.
B. The original functions of a gene can be split between two paralogs in a gene family..
C. Functional divergence can arise in gene families because there is no loss of fitness when the function of one copy changes.
D. Gene families arise through gene duplications.
A
Which of the following is the major contributing factor to phenotypic differences between individuals of the same species?
A. Variation in novel genes.
B. Variation in regulatory sequences.
C. Variation in splicing.
D. Variation in amino acid sequences.
D
What is a pseudogene?
A. A Non-functional Gene
B. A Protein Domain
C. A Member of a Gene Family
D. A Paralogous Gene
A
Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE) separates proteins based on differences in which of the following? Please select all that apply.
A. Their Size
B. Their Charge
C. Their pH
D. Their GC%
A and B
During which of the following processes can genes be duplicated?
A. Translation
B. Replication
C. Splicing
D. Transcription
B
Telomeres usually have a single-stranded region of G-rich DNA that extends from the end of a chromosome.
True
There is a tight correlation between the C-value and organismal complexity.
False
Note 
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