ARRT VI 300 Sample Registry Questions

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299 Terms

1
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Who or what allows a last image to be displayed after the exposure has stopped?

A. Digital Fluoroscopy

B. The Interventional Radiologist

C. Use of rapid filming

D.The selected film medium

A. Digital Fluoroscopy

2
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What process allows the V/I suite personnel to recall a stored image and manipulate it?

A. DICOM process

B. PACS process

C. Post procedural subtraction

D. Temporal subtraction

C. Post procedural subtraction

3
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In an older V/I suite that use CRT monitors, what are the two available scan modes?

1) progressive 2) repeating 3) interlaced 3) dynamic

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3

D. 1 and 3

4
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What process converts the video image from the TV chain into a digital format?

A. ADC

B. VDC

C. VDP

D. TVD

A. ADC

5
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True or false DSA takes the image received by the intensifier in analog format converts it to digital information that is then processed by the computer for the storage and display?

A. True

B. False

C. 

D. 

A. True

6
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DSA uses ___ to average together several frames to reduce electronic and quantum noise? 

A. Temporal subtraction

B. a high contrast medium 

C. Television/Digital image chain

D. Frame integration

D. Frame integration

7
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DSA allows window and level adjustments to manipulate pre-procedural images?

A. True

B. False

C.

D.

B. False

8
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DSA signal to noise ratio should be?

A. 30 to 60 FPS

B. 1024 X 768

C. 1000:1

D. 640 X 480

C. 1000:1

9
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What feature uses a pre-contrast mask and a contrast filled image to produce a subtracted image?

A. Image reversal

B. Temporal subtraction

C. Temporal filtering

D. Post procedural subtraction

B. Temporal Subtraction

10
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What process adds a small amount of the mask back into the subtracted image but not enough to affect the image?

A. Land marking

B. Edge enhancement

C. Image remasking

D. Window adjustment

A. Land marking

11
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Images to be archived and stored may be sent to:

1) digital masks 2) recorders  3) PACS 4) printed to hard copy media

A. 1 and 2

B. 1,2 and 3

C. 2 and 4

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

12
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Of the 3 most common injector formats, which is the one used mainly in the U.S?

1) Fixed Flow Rate Injector

2) Air Compression Injector

3) Pressure Dependent Injector

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. None of the above

C. 3) Pressure Dependent Injector

13
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The primary function of the pressure injector safety feature is to prevent damage to the injector and the selected catheter, True or False?

A. True

B. False

C.

D.

B. False

14
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What forms of patient identification must be made and verified before any procedure is performed on a patient?

1) Patients medical record number 2) D.O.B. 3) Patients Name

4) Written doctors order correlates with your exam

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C.  1, 2 and 3

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

15
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Educating the patient about their proposed procedure will have little or no effect on the outcome of the exam True or False?

A. True

B. False

C.

D.

A. True

16
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What format of consent is essential prior to performing any exam or procedure on a patient?

A. Oral

B. Written

C. Blanket

D. Informed

D. Informed

17
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An H&P must be available and include all the body systems listed prior to performing any invasive procedure True or False?

A. True

B. False

C.

D.

A. True

18
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It is the job of the _____ to check that all emergency equipment is present and functioning in their procedure room?

A. Engineer

B.  Nurse

C. Radiologist

D. V/I radiographer

D. V/I Radiographer

19
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When a patient is to be sedated for a procedure , the nurse along with monitoring the patient, can and should act as a circulator as well True or False?

A. True

B. False

C.

D.

B. False

20
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Normal values for BUN and creatinine would fall in which range respectively?

A. 13; 0.8

B. 13; 2.6

C. 26; 0.8

D. 26; 2.6

A. 13; 0.8

21
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A patients drug absorption rate may be affected by?

1) age 2) food in the stomach 3) body weight

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

22
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Your patients discomfort during the injection of contrast media is mostly contributed to the contrasts?

A. Toxicity

B.Osmolality

C. Viscosity

D. Volume

B. Osmolality

23
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Severe allergic reaction to a contrast agent may result in shock, which is characterized by?

1) Rapid breathing

2) High pulse rate

3) Possible loss of consciousness

A. 1 and 2 only

B.1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only 

D. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

24
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A patients vasovagal reaction is characterized by?

1) Sweating

2) Increased blood pressure

3) Nausea

A. 1 and 2 only

B.1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only 

D. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

25
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To enhance demonstration of the portal venous system, which of the following drugs may be injected prior to angiography?

A. Pitressin

B. Epinephrine

C.  Tolazoline

D.  Heparin

C. Tolazoline

26
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Which of the following types of emboli would specifically be associated with trauma a long bone?

A. Fat

B. Gas

C. Pulmonary

D. Tumor

A. Fat

27
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What possible results may Lidocaine mixed with contract media exhibit?

1) May make the exam less painful

2) May decrease irritability and prevent PVC’s

3) Is permissible for arterial examination of upper extremities 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

28
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The tibial pulse is felt where?

A. Just posterior to the lateral malleolus

B. Just posterior to the medial malleolus

C. At the top of the foot

D. Behind the knee

B. Just posterior to the medial malleolus

29
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The dorsal pedal pulse is felt where?

A. At the dorsum of the foot

B. Just posterior to the medial malleolus

C. At the top of the foot around the 1st and 2nd metatarsals

D. At the anterior portion of the elbow

C. At the top of the foot around the 1st and 2nd metatarsals

30
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The effective half-life of heparin is about?

A. 30 minutes

B. 90 minutes

C. 2 days

D. 5 days

B. 90 min

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