Microbiology Final Exam Merged

A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a(n)

Helminth

A genus can best be defined as

A taxon composed of one or more species and below family.

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?

Bacteria

Serological testing is based on the fact that

Antibodies react specifically with an antigen.

Classification of organisms in the three domains is based on

Type of cell

A nucleated, green cell that moves by means of flagella is a(n)

Alga

What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?

Members absorb dissolved organic matter.

Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?

Fungi

In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the

Specific epithet.

A clone is

Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that

They evolved from a common ancestor.

Which of the following best defines a strain?

A group of cells all derived from a single parent

Biochemical tests are used to determine

Enzymatic activities.

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the

Genus

A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species

Is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall?

Bacteria

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on

rRNA sequences.

List ways that the skin protects the body against pathogens.

Dryness reduces moisture for metabolism; intact barrier prevents easy penetration; and sebum creates acidic environment.

What is mucus? What's its purpose, and where is it found in the body? What role does cilia play in expelling microbes in the ciliary escalator?

Glycoprotein; lubricate tracts such as respiratory and digestive; traps microbes

How are tears, saliva, urine,etc. physical factories of defense?

Mechanically removes microbes from body via fluids.

How are sebum, tears, gastric juices, etc chemical factors of defense?

They contain enzymes (like lysozyme) and acids that kill or inhibit microbes; sebum creates a low pH environment, gastric juice destroys pathogens with HCl.

Give specific examples of how microbiota can protect the body against pathogens.

Normal flora outcompete pathogens for nutrients and space, produce antimicrobial compounds, and stimulate immune responses.

Discuss the common function(s) of neutrophils, monocytes, and dendritic cells.

They are phagocytic cells that ingest and destroy microbes and present antigens (especially dendritic cells).

Discuss the function(s) of basophils; discuss the function(s) of eosinophils.

One group releases histamine during allergic responses. The other group combats parasitic infections and contributes to allergy symptoms.

Discuss the function(s) of natural killer cells. How do they kill cells using granzymes?

They release granzymes, enzymes that enter target cells and trigger apoptosis ( programmed cell death).

Discuss the main function of T-lymphocytes; discuss the main function of B-lymphocytes.

One group of cells act in cell-mediated immunity, killing infected cells or helping activate other immune cells while the other acts in humoral immunity, thus producing antibodies.

Discuss chemotaxis as it relates to phagocytosis.

Movement of phagocytes toward the site of infection in response to chemical signals.

Discuss ingestion of a microbe and formation of a phagosome as they relate to phagocytosis

Phagocyte engulfs microbe into a vesicle called a phagosome

What are the five cardinal signs and symptoms of inflammation? What are the three major functions of inflammation? What are acute-phase proteins? How are they activated?

Redness, heat,swelling,pain,loss of functions.

Destroy microbes,limit spread, and repair tissue.

Proteins activated by cytokines to enhance immune responses.

State four chemicals released boy damaged cells during inflammation. What are their overall function(s)? What is a specific role that each chemical plays in the process of inflammation?

Histamine- vasodilation

Prostaglandins- enhance pain/ inflammation

Leukotrienes-increase permeability

Cytokines-recruit immune cells.

Promote inflammation, immune cell recruitment, and healing.

How anre vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels correlated to the five cardinal signs and symptoms of inflammation?

Cause redness and heat (vasodilation), and swelling (permeability), which causes other signs.

Discuss margination and diapedesis as they relate to inflammation. How are cytokines involved?

Leukocytes line up along vessel wall. Then they move through the vessel wall to reach tissue. Cytokines guide this process.

Discuss tissue repair following inflammation, and how it can differ between damage to the dermis and epidermis.

Epidermis damage heels with regeneration of parenchyma; dermis damage involves fibrosis and possible scarring due to stroma damage.

What part of the body sets it internal temperature and is reset when exposed to an agent that induces a fever? What cytokine(s) or involved in resetting this temperature?

Hypothalamus regulates temperature. Cytokines such as IL – 1 and TNF a reset the setpoint during fever.

What is shivering? When does it occur during a fever (before, middle, end) and why? What effect does it have on the temperature of the body, and how does the body achieve it?

Occurs in early fever to raise body temperature by muscle activity as the body adjust to a higher set point

What is crisis? When does it occur during a fever (before, middle, and) and why? What effect does it have on a temperature of the body, and how the body achieve it?

Occurs at the end of fever when the setpoint returns to normal, body cools via sweating and vasodilation.

Discuss at least three disadvantages of prolong fever in the body. At which temperature should one be concerned? How long should a fever persist before receiving medical intervention?

Dehydration, seizures, protein, denaturation. Concern greater than 104°F or 40°C, medical attention rather than three days or any extreme temperature in vulnerable individuals.

Differentiate tomorrow and cell mediated immunity in regard to lymphocytes involved in their goals

B cell target pathogens via antibodies. T cells activate the cell in target infected or abnormal cell.

What are the components of the antibody and antigen, respectively, called that allows for them to buy to each other? Are the component specific to each other? Why or why not?

Anti body– bonding site ( variable region) and Epitope. They are specific due to shape and chemical interactions.

List and provided function for each immunoglobulin class

IGG is a long-term immunity fetal protection. IGA is a mucosal defense. AGM is first response, B cell regulation. IGE is allergy IGD is B cell regulation.

In the activation of B cells, which cell is the antigen – presenting cell? What cell does the APC represent the antigen to ? What happens following their interaction?

APC, like dendritic cells, present antigen to helper T cells, which activate B cells to produce antibodies.

Differentiate an agglutination , opsonization, and neutralization as a result of antigen – antibody binding.

Clamping of pathogens, tagging for phagocytosis, blocking pathogen attachment

In regards to the types of adaptive immunity, how are natural types different from artificial ones? What about active and passive types?

One type occurs from normal exposure to a pathogen while the other happens by injection, one type causes the host to produce antibodies after being presented in antigen and the other type involves receiving antibodies

What is it called when immature B and T cells , respectively, or destroyed to prevent them from targeting healthy cells in the body? What long-term outcome could occur if the immature cells are not destroyed?

Clonal deletion eliminate self reacting B/T cells. If not destroyed, auto immune disease can develop.

All viruses are constructed of

either DNA or RNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid.

Bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following?

Possessing prokaryotic cells

All algae are

Photoautotrophs

The specific white blood cells that HIV attaches to are the ____________ cells.

CD4+

The determination of the taxon to which an organism belongs is called ________.

identification

Serological testing is based on the fact that

Antibodies react specifically with an antigen

Recently a class of infectious proteins with no associated nucleic acid have been identified. They are referred to as

Prions

If a virus enters the lytic phase in a host's cell, it will cause

the host cell to burst because there will be so many viral particles present.

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on

rRNA sequences

The general order of classification below the domain or kingdom level is

phyla, class, order, family, genus, species.

The science dealing with classification is called ________.

taxonomy

The HIV virus is considered a(n) ______ virus, because after getting integrated into the host cell chromosomes, it does not begin replicating immediately.

latent

If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that

They evolved from a common ancestor.

The binomial system of nomenclature assigns each organism a scientific name consisting of

genus and species.

What do tapeworms eat?

Intestinal contents

A population descending from a single organism or pure culture isolate is called a ________.

strain

What is the name for parasitic viral DNA that has been integrated into the chromosome of its bacterial host?

prophage

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the

Genus

Phages are viruses that can infect

bacteria

One way in which retroviruses differ from all other types of viruses is that retroviruses

have the enzyme reverse transcriptase.

Which of the following best defines a strain?

A group of cells all derived from a single parent

Biochemical tests are used to determine

Enzymatic activities

The arrangement of organisms into groups is best described as ________.

classification

Which of the following is a unique feature of viruses that separates them from bacteria?

They are generally smaller.

Mad cow disease is caused by a

prion

Most viruses form a capsid around their nucleic acid core. This capsid is composed of a(n)

protein

A genus can best be defined as

A taxon composed of one or more species and below family.

What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?

Members absorb dissolved organic matter

A general term used to describe groups based on mutual similarity or evolutionary relatedness is ________.

taxa

Viruses may cause cancer by

triggering the expression of cancer-causing genes present in the genome.

Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?

Fungi

Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver?

Animalia

The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by

snRNPs

An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between nucleotide sequences in DNA is

DNA ligase

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

As naked DNA in solution.

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is

RNA polymerase.

If you start with 3 double stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ____ fragments.

48

E. coli makes insulin because

The insulin gene was inserted into it.

Which of the following contain all the requirements for PCR?

Primers, Taq DNA polymerase, dNTPs

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation

Transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation.

According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the

Substrate must bind to the repressor.

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are

Sources of heat stable DNA polymerases

The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is

Catabolite repression

The mechanism by which the presence of arabinose controls the arabinose operon is

Induction

In transcription,

DNA is copied to RNA

DNA is constructed of

Two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel

The Western Blot technique detects

Proteins

EcoRI and HindIII are

Restriction endonucleases

If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is

Inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium

Biochemical tests are used to determine

Enzymatic activities.

All the bacterial cells that result from the replication of a single original bacterial organism are said to be a

Pure culture

The destruction or removal of all viable organisms is called

Sterilization

When antiseptics and disinfectants are compared, antiseptics are generally

Less toxic

Organisms that can use carbon dioxide as their sole or principal source of carbon are

Autotrophs

Most microorganisms maintain their internal pH

Near neutral (pH 7)

Moist heat sterilizes by

Denaturing proteins