The Mammalian Body - Introduction to Animal Anatomy and Physiology (Notes Review)

A comprehensive set of Q&A flashcards covering anatomy, physiology, skin structure, skeletal and muscular systems, bone histology, and muscle physiology based on the provided notes.

What is the study of the structure of living organisms, including bones, muscles, organs, and tissues?

A) Physiology
B) Histology
C) Anatomy
D) Pathology

Correct Answer: C) Anatomy

Which field focuses on the study of the functions and processes of living organisms, and how organs and systems work to maintain life?

A) Anatomy
B) Embryology
C) Physiology
D) Genetics

Correct Answer: C) Physiology

Which of the following correctly lists the levels of structural organization from simplest to most complex?

A) Tissues → Cells → Organs → Systems → Organism
B) Cells → Tissues → Organs → Systems → Organism
C) Organs → Tissues → Cells → Systems → Organism
D) Systems → Organs → Tissues → Cells → Organism

Correct Answer: B) Cells → Tissues → Organs → Systems → Organism

Which of the following is NOT listed as a major animal system in the notes?

A) Skeletal system
B) Endocrine system
C) Nervous system
D) Respiratory system

Correct Answer: B) Endocrine system

What is a distinguishing characteristic of mammalian skin compared to that of other vertebrates?

A) It is generally thinner.
B) It lacks sensory receptors.
C) It acts as a passive barrier only.
D) It is generally thicker and acts as a life-style interface with the environment.

Correct Answer: D) It is generally thicker and acts as a life-style interface with the environment.

What are the approximate weight and surface area of mammalian skin?

A) 10% of body weight and 1.0 m^2
B) 16% of body weight and 1.8 m^2
C) 20% of body weight and 2.5 m^2
D) 5% of body weight and 0.5 m^2

Correct Answer: B) 16% of body weight and 1.8 m^2

The three structural layers of the skin are:

A) Stratum basale, Stratum spinosum, Stratum corneum
B) Epidermis, Dermis, and Subcutis (hypodermis)
C) Papillary layer, Reticular layer, Hair follicle
D) Keratinocytes, Melanocytes, Langerhans cells

Correct Answer: B) Epidermis, Dermis, and Subcutis (hypodermis)

Which of the following is considered a derivative of the skin?

A) Muscle tissue
B) Bone marrow
C) Hair
D) Lymph nodes

Correct Answer: C) Hair

Which of these is NOT an epidermal layer?

A) Stratum basale
B) Stratum reticulare
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum corneum

Correct Answer: B) Stratum reticulare

What is the primary role of the epidermis, and what do its keratinocytes do?

A) It produces melanin; keratinocytes provide immune surveillance.
B) It regulates body temperature; keratinocytes store fat.
C) It acts as a barrier; keratinocytes form the outer protective layer and migrate to the surface.
D) It senses touch; keratinocytes produce sweat.

Correct Answer: C) It acts as a barrier; keratinocytes form the outer protective layer and migrate to the surface.

What is the primary function of melanocytes and melanin in the epidermis?

A) To provide structural support to the skin.
B) To produce sweat for thermoregulation.
C) To protect skin from UV radiation by producing melanin.
D) To facilitate sensory perception.

Correct Answer: C) To protect skin from UV radiation by producing melanin.

The dermis is composed of tough supportive connective tissue and consists of which two main layers?

A) Epidermal and hypodermal
B) Stratum basale and Stratum corneum
C) Papillary and reticular
D) Sebaceous and sweat gland layers

Correct Answer: C) Papillary and reticular

Which of the following are important dermal sensory receptors mentioned in the notes?

A) Merkel cells and Keratinocytes
B) Meissner's corpuscle and Pacinian corpuscle
C) Hair follicles and Sebaceous glands
D) Melanosomes and Langerhans cells

Correct Answer: B) Meissner's corpuscle and Pacinian corpuscle

Which of the following is NOT a main function of the skin?

A) Protection as a barrier
B) Production of digestive enzymes
C) Sensory perception
D) Thermoregulation

Correct Answer: B) Production of digestive enzymes

The basement membrane is defined as:

A) A layer within the dermis for fat storage.
B) The dermoepidermal junction between the epidermis and dermis.
C) The outermost protective layer of the skin.
D) A structure responsible for hair growth.

Correct Answer: B) The dermoepidermal junction between the epidermis and dermis.

In the context of the epidermis, the Malpighian layer refers to the combined:

A) Stratum granulosum and Stratum corneum
B) Stratum lucidum and Stratum corneum
C) Stratum basale and Stratum spinosum
D) Papillary and reticular layers

Correct Answer: C) Stratum basale and Stratum spinosum

Which epidermal layer is characterized by dividing keratinocytes and melanocytes attached to the basement membrane via hemidesmosomes?

A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum spinosum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum basale

Correct Answer: D) Stratum basale

From where is melanin transferred to keratinocytes, and what is its primary purpose?

A) From Langerhans cells; for immune response.
B) From sebaceous glands; for skin lubrication.
C) From melanocytes; to provide UV protection for skin cell nuclei.
D) From sweat glands; for thermoregulation.

Correct Answer: C) From melanocytes; to provide UV protection for skin cell nuclei.

The Stratum spinosum is characterized by desmosomes linking cells, and it also contains which type of antigen-presenting cells important for skin immunity?

A) Keratinocytes
B) Melanocytes
C) Langerhans cells
D) Fibroblasts

Correct Answer: C) Langerhans cells

In which epidermal layer do cells flatten and lose their nuclei, and which layer consists of non-viable corneocytes forming the outer barrier?

A) Stratum basale and Stratum spinosum
B) Stratum spinosum and Stratum granulosum
C) Stratum granulosum and Stratum corneum
D) Stratum lucidum and Stratum basale

Correct Answer: C) Stratum granulosum and Stratum corneum

Hair follicles and sebaceous glands are considered what in the context of the skin?

A) Core structural components
B) Sensory receptors
C) Derivatives
D) Primary epidermal layers

Correct Answer: C) Derivatives

The dermis consists of which two layers, and what general functions does it provide?

A) Epidermal and Hypodermal; provides UV protection and water retention.
B) Papillary and Reticular; provides strength, elasticity, and houses hair follicles, glands, and nerves.
C) Stratum basale and Stratum corneum; forms the protective barrier.
D) Superficial and Deep; produces melanin and keratin.

Correct Answer: B) Papillary and Reticular; provides strength, elasticity, and houses hair follicles, glands, and nerves.

In the dermis, what are the respective roles of collagen, elastin, and proteoglycans?

A) Elastin for strength, collagen for elasticity, proteoglycans for thermoregulation.
B) Collagen for strength, elastin for elasticity, proteoglycans for water retention and viscosity.
C) Proteoglycans for strength, collagen for water retention, elastin for elasticity.
D) All three primarily provide sensory perception.

Correct Answer: B) Collagen for strength, elastin for elasticity, proteoglycans for water retention and viscosity.

Which skin derivative is correctly matched with its function?

A) Nails: thermoregulation
B) Hair: oil secretion
C) Sebaceous glands: insulation/protection
D) Sweat glands: thermoregulation and excretion

Correct Answer: D) Sweat glands: thermoregulation and excretion

What are the primary functions of the skeletal system?

A) Produces hormones and enzymes.
B) Supports and protects the body, provides framework for muscle attachment, and houses joints for movement.
C) Transports nutrients and oxygen.
D) Generates nerve impulses.

Correct Answer: B) Supports and protects the body, provides framework for muscle attachment, and houses joints for movement.

The two main bone formation processes are:

A) Appositional and Interstitial growth
B) Endochondral ossification and Intramembranous ossification
C) Calcification and Resorption
D) Hematopoiesis and Osteolysis

Correct Answer: B) Endochondral ossification and Intramembranous ossification

How do cancellous and compact bone differ?

A) Cancellous bone is dense and solid, while compact bone has an open network.
B) Cancellous bone is found only in adults, while compact bone is found in children.
C) Cancellous (spongy) bone has an open network, while Compact bone is dense and solid.
D) Cancellous bone produces blood cells, while compact bone stores fat.

Correct Answer: C) Cancellous (spongy) bone has an open network, while Compact bone is dense and solid.

The two major parts of the mammalian skeleton are the:

A) Cranial and Caudal skeletons
B) Upper and Lower skeletons
C) Axial and Appendicular skeletons
D) Endoskeleton and Exoskeleton

Correct Answer: C) Axial and Appendicular skeletons

Which set of bones forms the pectoral girdle?

A) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis
B) Femur, Tibia, Fibula
C) Scapula, Coracoid, Clavicle
D) Humerus, Radius, Ulna

Correct Answer: C) Scapula, Coracoid, Clavicle

The pelvic girdle is comprised of which bones and includes which key features?

A) Scapula, Coracoid, Clavicle; glenoid cavity.
B) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis; obturator foramen and acetabulum.
C) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs, sternum; costal cartilages.
D) Femur, patella, tibia; knee joint.

Correct Answer: B) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis; obturator foramen and acetabulum.

Which description accurately defines the pentadactyl limb plan?

A) A limb with three main segments, each containing a single bone.
B) A basic limb pattern with a proximal long bone, two distal long bones side by side, a set of nine carpal/tarsal bones, five metacarpals/metatarsals, and five digits.
C) A limb structure found only in avian species.
D) A limb characterized by the fusion of all bones into a single unit.

Correct Answer: B) A basic limb pattern with a proximal long bone, two distal long bones side by side, a set of nine carpal/tarsal bones, five metacarpals/metatarsals, and five digits.

Which set of vertebrae is typically constant in number across mammals?

A) Lumbar vertebrae
B) Thoracic vertebrae
C) Cervical vertebrae
D) Sacral vertebrae

Correct Answer: C) Cervical vertebrae

What are the atlas and axis responsible for?

A) Forming the sacral region of the vertebral column.
B) Protecting the spinal cord in the lumbar region.
C) Supporting the skull and allowing head rotation as the first and second cervical vertebrae, respectively.
D) Articulating with the ribs in the thoracic region.

Correct Answer: C) Supporting the skull and allowing head rotation as the first and second cervical vertebrae, respectively.

What is the vertebral zygapophysis?

A) A canal for the spinal cord.
B) A facet for articulation with adjacent vertebrae.
C) The main body of the vertebra.
D) A process for muscle attachment.

Correct Answer: B) A facet for articulation with adjacent vertebrae.

How many pairs of ribs do humans typically have, and what is a notable variation?

A) 10 pairs; some may have 11.
B) 12 pairs; about 1 in 20 people may have a 13th pair.
C) 13 pairs; some may have 12.
D) 14 pairs; some may have supernumerary ribs in the cervical region.

Correct Answer: B) 12 pairs; about 1 in 20 people may have a 13th pair.

Which part of the pectoral girdle articulates with the humerus?

A) Coracoid process
B) Clavicle
C) Glenoid cavity of the scapula
D) Acromion process

Correct Answer: C) Glenoid cavity of the scapula

Which answer correctly describes the key bones of the hind limb and their arrangement?

A) Humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges.
B) Scapula, clavicle, humerus, radius, ulna.
C) Femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsals, metatarsals.
D) Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum, coccyx.

Correct Answer: C) Femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsals, metatarsals.

A motor unit consists of:

A) A muscle fiber and all the neurons it receives input from.
B) A sensory neuron and the muscle fibers it detects stimuli from.
C) A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.
D) All the muscle fibers within a single muscle.

Correct Answer: C) A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

The synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber, where acetylcholine is released to trigger contraction, is known as the:

A) Sarcomere
B) Myofibril
C) Neuromuscular junction
D) Intercalated disk

Correct Answer: C) Neuromuscular junction

At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine's role is to:

A) Inhibit muscle contraction.
B) Transport calcium ions into the muscle fiber.
C) Depolarize the muscle membrane, triggering contraction.
D) Break down ATP for energy.

Correct Answer: C) Depolarize the muscle membrane, triggering contraction.

According to the sliding filament model, muscle contraction occurs when:

A) Muscle fibers lengthen due to ATP hydrolysis.
B) Thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments slide past each other via cross-bridges, shortening the sarcomere.
C) Calcium ions directly bind to myosin.
D) The entire muscle cell changes shape without filament movement.

Correct Answer: B) Thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments slide past each other via cross-bridges, shortening the sarcomere.

The functional unit of a myofibril, extending from one Z-line to the next, is called a:

A) Myosin filament
B) Actin filament
C) Sarcomere
D) Neuromuscular junction

Correct Answer: C) Sarcomere

Which two main myofilament proteins are responsible for muscle contraction, and what regulates their interaction?

A) Collagen and elastin; regulated by proteoglycans.
B) Keratin and melanin; regulated by melanocytes.
C) Actin (thin) and myosin (thick); regulated by troponin and tropomyosin.
D) Hemoglobin and myoglobin; regulated by oxygen.

Correct Answer: C) Actin (thin) and myosin (thick); regulated by troponin and tropomyosin.

What event directly triggers the exposure of myosin-binding sites on actin filaments, allowing for muscle contraction?

A) ATP binding to myosin heads.
B) Release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
C) Calcium binding to the troponin complex, moving tropomyosin.
D) Sodium ions entering the muscle cell.

Correct Answer: C) Calcium binding to the troponin complex, moving tropomyosin.

What is the correct order of energy sources used for muscle contraction, from immediate to sustained activity?

A) Glycogen → Creatine Phosphate → ATP
B) ATP → Creatine Phosphate → Glycogen via glycolysis and respiration
C) Lactic acid → ATP → Glycogen
D) Creatine Phosphate → Glycogen → ATP

Correct Answer: B) ATP → Creatine Phosphate → Glycogen via glycolysis and respiration

How do slow-twitch muscle fibers differ from fast-twitch muscle fibers?

A) Slow-twitch fibers are for rapid, powerful contractions, while fast-twitch are fatigue-resistant.
B) Slow-twitch fibers are fatigue-resistant with many mitochondria and high myoglobin, while fast-twitch are for rapid, powerful contractions.
C) Slow-twitch fibers are only aerobic, while fast-twitch are only anaerobic.
D) Slow-twitch fibers have fewer mitochondria, while fast-twitch have more.

Correct Answer: B) Slow-twitch fibers are fatigue-resistant with many mitochondria and high myoglobin, while fast-twitch are for rapid, powerful contractions.

Cardiac muscle is involuntary and striated like skeletal muscle, but it features specialized structures not found in skeletal muscle, called:

A) Sarcomeres
B) Neuromuscular junctions
C) Intercalated disks
D) Tendons

Correct Answer: C) Intercalated disks

The significance of intercalated disks in cardiac muscle is that they:

A) Produce voluntary movements.
B) Store calcium for contraction.
C) Anchor neighboring cardiac muscle cells with gap junctions, enabling synchronized contraction.
D) Provide insulation for electrical signals.

Correct Answer: C) Anchor neighboring cardiac muscle cells with gap junctions, enabling synchronized contraction.

Oxygen debt after intense exercise refers to the elevated oxygen uptake needed to:

A) Increase blood flow to inactive muscles.
B) Produce more lactic acid.
C) Oxidize accumulated lactic acid and restore ATP/CP stores.
D) Decrease body temperature.

Correct Answer: C) Oxidize