Psych 257 Midterm #3

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92 Terms

1
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Which of the following isn’t considered a psychoactive substance?

a. Nicotine

b. Heroin

c. Caffeine

d. Vitamin C

Vitamin C

2
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What’s the primary characteristic of substance use disorder (SUD)?

a. Ingestion of substances in moderate amounts

b. Physiological reactions, e.g. impaired judgment

c. Interference with user’s education, job, or relationships

d. Use of multiple substances simultaneously

c. Interference with user’s education, job, or relationships

3
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Which of the following symptoms is associated with withdrawal from cocaine?

a. Hallucinations and body tremors

b. Irritability and nervousness

c. Anxiety and lack of motivation

d. Nausea and vomitting

c. Anxiety and lack of motivation

4
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Alcohol, nicotine, and caffeine account for more health problems and mortality than which category of substances?

a. Stimulants

B. Illegal drugs

C. Depressants

D. Hallucinogens

B. Illegal drugs

5
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Polysubstance use refers to…

a. Ingesting substances in moderate amounts that don’t interfere with functioning

b. Use of increasingly greater amounts of a drug to achieve the same effect

c. Use of multiple mind-altering substances

d. Physiological responses resulting from substance withdrawal

c. Use of multiple mind-altering substances

6
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True or False: Substance use refers to ingestion of substances in moderate amounts that don’t interfere with social, educational, or occupational functioning.

True

7
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True or false: Symptoms of withdrawal are the same for all psychoactive substances.

False; symptoms vary by substance.

8
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True or false: Substance-induced disorders include conditions such as intoxication and withdrawal.

False; it involves tolerance and withdrawal.

9
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True or false: Tolerance refers to negative physical response when a substance is no longer ingested.

False; tolerance refers to the body's adaptation to a substance, requiring more of it to achieve the same effect.

10
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True or false: Substance-use disorder always involves physiological dependence.

False; SUD can occur without physiological dependence.

11
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Which of the following is classified as a depressant?

a. Cocaine

b. Alcohol

c. LSD

D. Caffeine

b. Alcohol

12
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Primary effect of depressants is to…

a. Increase CNS activity

b. Decrease CNS activity

c. Induce hallucinations

d. Act as a stimulant

b. Decrease CNS activity

13
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Which neuroreceptor system is most affected by alcohol, leading to its sedative effects?

a. Dopamine

b. Glutamate

c. GABA

d. Serotonin

c. GABA

14
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What is a characteristic symptom of withdrawal from chronic alcohol use?

a. Increased energy

b. Hand tremors and agitation

c. Euphoria

d. Loss of apetite

b. Hand tremors and agitation

15
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Barbiturates are primarily used for which purpose?

a. Anxiety reduction

b. Sleep induction

c. Weight loss

d. Increased focus

b. Sleep induction

16
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Benzodiazepines are considered safer than barbiturates because they…

a. Have no risk of addiction

b. Are less likely to cause severe withdrawal symptoms

c. Are effective without risk of cognitive impairment

d. Are less likely to result in fatal overdose

d. Are less likely to result in fatal overdose

17
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Which of the following is true about fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASS)?

a. Primarily affects motor coordination in adults

b. Results from moderate alcohol consumption during pregnancy

c. Includes learning difficulties and behavioural deficits

d. Unrelated to maternal alcohol consumption

c. Includes learning difficulties and behavioural deficits

18
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Early use of alcohol predicts…

a. No risk of alcohol misuse later in life

b. Chronic and severe alcohol use disorders

c. A higher likelihood of avoiding alcohol in adulthood

d. Mild alcohol-related disorders only

b. Chronic and severe alcohol use disorders

19
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Which symptom differentiates mild alcohol use disorder from severe alcohol use disorder?

a. Number of symptoms present

b. Type of substance used

c. Individual’s age

d. Amount of alcohol consumed

a. Number of symptoms present

20
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Which neurotransmitter system is associated with alcohol-related blackouts?

a. Dopamine

b. Glutamate

c. GABA

d. Serotonin

b. Glutamate

21
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Which of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic-related disorders?

a. Persistent desire to cut down or control use

b. Recurrent use in physically hazardous situations

c. Occasional recreational use with no adverse effects

d. Craving or strong urge to use substance

c. Occasional recreational use with no adverse effects

22
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What is a common long-term effect of excessive alcohol use?

a. Improved cardiovascular health

b. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

c. Reduced risk of liver disease

d. Decreased likelihood of dependency

b. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

23
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Which of the following statements about sedative, hypnotic, and anxiolytic drugs is correct?

a. Barbiturates are the safest option for anxiety reduction

b. Benzodiazepines have a high relapse rate after discontinuation

c. Both classes of drugs act on the serotonin system

d. Women are less likely to use these substances than men

b. Benzodiazepines have a high relapse rate after discontinuation

24
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Alcohol use is frequently linked with violent behaviour because…

a. Alcohol directly increases aggression in all users

b. It reduces fears associated with punishment and impairs impulse control

c. Enhances executive cognitive function

d. People become overly cautious when intoxicated

b. Reduces fears associated punishments and impair impulse control

25
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A problematic pattern of alcohol use is misdiagnosed as mild if…

a. Causes no noticeable impairment

b. Individual experiences 2-3 symptoms within a 12-month period

c. There’s evidence of withdrawal symptoms only

d. Physical tolerance has not yet developed

b. Individual experiences 2-3 symptoms within a 12-month period

26
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Which of the following isn’t considered a stimulant?

a. Cocaine

b. Nicotine

c. Alcohol

d. Caffeine

c. Alcohol, considered to be a depressant.

27
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Stimulants primarily work by…

a. Depressing CNS activity

b. Elevating mood, activity, and alertness

c. Reducing physiological arousal levels

d. Inducing hallucinations

b. Elevating mood, activity, and alertness

28
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What neurotransmitter system is most directly affected by cocaine use, leading to its euphoric effects?

a. GABA

b. Dopamine

c. Serotonin

d. Norepinephrine

b. Dopamine

29
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Key diagnostic criterion for stimulant use disorder is…

a. Absence of withdrawal symptoms

b. Persistent craving or strong urge to use the substance

c. Use of stimulants exclusively for medical purposes

d. Never experiencing a crash after use

b. Persistent craving or strong urge to use the substance

30
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Which of the following is a physiological symptom of amphetamine intoxication?

a. Reduced BP

b. Prolonged sleep

c. Increased heart rate and BP

d. Decreased respiration

c. Increased heart rate and BP

31
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MDMA (ecstasy) was originally used as…

a. Treatment for ADHD

b. Nasal decongestant

c. Appetite suppressant

d. Sleeping aid

c. Appetite suppressant

32
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Which of the following is a withdrawal symptom from chronic stimulant use?

a. Euphoria

b. Prolonged periods of sleep

c. Increased sociability

d. Increased appetite

b. Prolonged periods of sleep

33
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Chronic use of cocaine can result in…

a. Premature aging of brain

b. Decreased dopamine activity

c. Increased resistance to stress

d. Enhanced immune function

a. Premature aging of brain

34
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Nicotine withdrawal symptoms don’t include…

a. Depression

b. Weight loss

c. Irritability

d. Difficulty concentrating

b. Weight loss

35
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Caffeine is often referred to as the “gentle stimulant” because…

a. Doesn’t have addictive properties

b. Thought to be the least harmful of all stimulants

c. Doesn’t affect sleep patterns

d. Doesn’t interact with dopamine system

b. Thought to be the least harmful of all stimulants

36
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Which population group has the highest prevalence of smoking?

a. High socioeconomic status individuals

b. Indigenous populations

c. Urban professionals

d. College students

b. Indigenous populations

37
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Which stimulant has effects that are typically short-lived, requiring frequent use to maintain its up?

a. Caffeine

b. Cocaine

c. Nicotine

d. MDMA

b. Cocaine

38
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What is a long-term effect of repeated use of MDMA?

a. Enhanced memory

b. Increased resistance to insomnoa

c. Memory problems and risk of death

d. Decreased appetite with no other side effects

c. Memory problems and risk of death

39
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Which of the following is true about tobacco-related disorders?

a. Withdrawal symptoms are rare

b. Prevalence of smoking decreases with socioeconomic status

c. Indigenous populations have lowest prevalence of smoking

d. Nicotine withdrawal includes decreased appetite and weight loss

b. Prevalence of smoking decreases with socioeconomic status

40
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Crash following amphetamine use is often characterized by…

a. Euphoria and heightened alertness

b. Fatigue and depression

c. Increased appetite and sociability

d. Agitation and restlessness

b. Fatigue and depression

41
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Which of the following is a defining characteristic of opioids?

a. Elevate mood and increase alertness

b. Reduce pain and induce euphoria

c. Increase physical activity and reduce fatigue

d. Produce hallucinations and alter sensory perceptions

b. Reduce pain and induce euphoria

42
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What is the term for natural chemicals found in the opium poppy that have narcotic effects?

a. Opiods

b. Opiates

c. Analgesics

d. Endorphins

b. Opiates

43
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What is a common withdrawal symptom experienced by individuals discontinuing opioid use?

a. Increased energy

b. Excessive yawning

c. Elevated heart rate

d. Loss of apetite

b. Excessive yawning

44
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Which of the following substances isn’t considered an opioid?

a. Morphine

b. Fentanyl

c. Methadone

d. LSD

d. LSD

45
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Which of the following is a severe consequence of opioid overdose?

a. Increased appetite

b. Elevated mood

c. Complete respiratory depression

d. Loss of motor coordination

c. Complete respiratory depression

46
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The rush/high experienced by opioid users is caused by which mechanism?

a. Suppression of immune system

b. Activation of body’s natural opioid system

c. Stimulation of GABA neurotransmitter system

d. Increased dopamine reuptake

b. Activation of body’s natural opioid system

47
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What is a major risk factor for individuals who inject opioids intravenously?

a. Excessive weight gain

b. Cardiovascular diseases

c. HIV infections and AIDS

d. Sudden onset of diabetes

c. HIV infections and AIDS

48
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What was a significant factor contributing to the opioid crisis in Canada?

a. Increased use of stimulants among teenagers

b. Overprescription and misuse of opioids

c. Reduction in availability of synthetic opioids

d. Lack of public awareness about opioid addiction

b. Overprescription and misuse of opioids

49
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How long do typical withdrawal symptoms from opioids last?

a. A few hours

b. 1-3 days, completed within a week

c. 2-4 weeks

d. Several months

b. 1-3 days, completed within a week

50
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Which of the following is a characteristic effect of hallucinogens?

a. Increased alertness and reduced fatigue

b. Hallucinations, paranoia, and altered sensory perception

c. Reduced pain and euphoria

d. Increased appetite and drowsiness

b. Hallucinations, paranoia, and altered sensory perception

51
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What is the most common hallucinogenic drug?

a. Cannabis

b. Ergot

c. LSD

d. Synthetic marijuana

c. LSD

52
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Which of the following isn’t a physical symptom of LSD use?

a. Rapid heartbeat

b. Pupillary dilation

c. Increased appetite

d. Sweating

c. Increased appetite

53
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What is ergotism, historically associated with ergot grain fungus?

a. Tolerance to hallucinogens

b. Withdrawal symptoms from cannabis

c. Condition causing gangrene and hallucinations

d. Psychological disorder linked to cannabis use

c. Condition causing gangrene and hallucinations

54
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Which of the following best describes the effects of cannabis at larger doses?

a. Heightened sensory experiences and relaxation

b. Paranoia, hallucinations, dizziness

c. Increased alertness and energy

d. Drowsiness and reduced motor coordination

b. Paranoia, hallucinations, dizziness

55
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What is the most common cannabinoid in marijuana?

a. THC

b. CBD

c. Dopamine

d. Serotonin

a. THC

56
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Which of the following isn’t a criterion for cannabis use disorder?

a. Persistent efforts to cut down or control cannabis use

b. Withdrawal symptoms such as appetite loss and nausea

c. Increased physical coordination during intoxication

d. Recurrent use in physically hazardous situations

c. Increased physical coordination during intoxication

57
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What is reverse tolerance in cannabis use?

a. Experiencing diminished effects from same amount of cannabis

b. Experiencing more pleasure from cannabis after repeated use

c. Experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms upon stopping cannabis use

d. Experiencing increased physical and mental coordination

b. Experiencing more pleasure from cannabis after repeated use

58
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What are some reported withdrawal symptoms from chronic cannabis use?

a. Increased energy and euphoria

b. Irritability, restlessness, appetite loss

c. Enhanced sensory perception

d. Improved sleep and reduced anxiety

b. Irritability, restlessness, appetite loss

59
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What is a potential medical use for cannabis?

a. Treating bacterial infections

b. Reducing chemotherapy-induced nausea

c. Enhancing cognitive function

d. Managing symptoms of ADHD

b. Reducing chemotherapy-induced nausea

60
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Which of the following is a characteristic effect of inhalant intoxication?

a. Increased alertness and energy

b. Poor coordination, slurred speech, and dizziness

c. Heightened sensory perception

d. Enhanced muscle growth

b. Poor coordination, slurred speech, and dizziness

61
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What is a long-term consequence of chronic inhalant use?

a. Enhanced mental clarity

b. Improved respiratory function

c. Damage to bone marrow, liver, and brain

d. Increased muscle mass

c. Damage to bone marrow, liver, and brain

62
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Which population group has the highest rates of inhalant use?

a. Middle-aged adults

b. Early adolescents, aged 13-14

c. Elderly individuals

d. Young adults, aged 20-25

b. Early adolescents, aged 13-14

63
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How are anabolic-androgenic steroids typically used illegally?

a. As recreational drug for euphora

b. To increase cognitive function

c. To enhance physical abilities and muscle bulk

d. To reduce anxiety and improve sleep

c. To enhance physical abilities and muscle bulk

64
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What is stacking in the context of anabolic steroid use?

a. Using steroids to treat multiple medical conditions

b. Administering multiple types of steroids at the same time

c. Cycling off steroids to avoid withdrawal symptoms

d. Taking steroids in a random, unscheduled manner

b. Administering multiple types of steroids at the same time

65
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Which drug is known as liquid ecstasy and can cause severe respiratory depression at high doses?

a. MDMA

b. GHB

c. Ketamine

d. Nitrous Oxide

b. GHB

66
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What is a characteristic effect of MDMA?

a. Reduced awareness of pain

b. Heightened auditory, visual, taste, and touch perception

c. Severe respiratory depression

d. Increased muscle growth

b. Heightened auditory, visual, taste, and touch perception

67
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What is the medical use of anabolic-androgenic steroids?

a. Enhancing athletic performance

b. Treating breast cancer and anemia

c. Improving cognitive focus

d. Increasing relaxation and verbalization

b. Treating breast cancer and anemia

68
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What is a potential consequence of GHB use at higher doses or in combination with alcohol?

a. Heightened euphoria

b. Severe respiratory depression, seizures, and coma

c. Enhanced physical strength

d. Improved sensory perception

b. Severe respiratory depression, seizures, and coma

69
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Which of the following drugs is commonly called special K?

a. MDMA

b. Ketamine

c. GHB

d. Nitrous oxide

b. Ketamine

70
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Which of the following isn’t a biological factor influencing substance use disorders?

a. Genetic predisposition

b. Activation of pleasure pathway

c. Alcohol myopia

d. Body’s ability to metabolize alcohol

c. Alcohol myopia

71
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What happens if the liver doesn’t produce sufficient aldehyde dehydrogenase (ADH) to break down acetaldehyde?

a. Individual experiences euphoria

b. Individual becomes ill

c. Drug isn’t metabolized and has no effect

d. Drug is more potent

b. Individual becomes ill

72
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What is the opponent-process theory?

a. The idea that substance use is a way to self-medicate negative feelings

b. The theory that drug use disorders are caused by an underlying physiological issue

c. The concept that an increase in positive feelings is followed by negative feelings shortly after

d. The hypothesis that genetic factors primarily determine substance use disorders

c. The concept that an increase in positive feelings is followed by negative feelings shortly after

73
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What is the role of DRD2 in alcohol use disorder?

a. It determines the body’s ability to metabolize alcohol

b. It regulates sensitivity of dopamine receptors, though not directly linked to alcohol use disorder

c. It increases the production of acetaldehyde

d. It’s the primary genetic cause of alcohol use disorder

b. It regulates sensitivity of dopamine receptors, though not directly linked to alcohol use disorder

74
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What is an example of the expectancy effect in substance use?
a. Repeated exposure to stimulants leading to increased dopamine release

b. Believing alcohol will make social interactions more enjoyable, influencing drinking behaviour

c. Using benzodiazepines to reduce anxiety symptoms

d. Experiencing withdrawal symptoms after stopping drug use

b. Believing alcohol will make social interactions more enjoyable, influencing drinking behaviour

75
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What is a key idea in the moral weakness model of substance use disorders?

a. Drug use in due to genetic predisposition

b. Drug use is a failure of self-control in the face of temptation

c. Substance use is caused by trauma and adverse life experiences

d. Drug use disorders are medical conditions requiring treatment

b. Drug use is a failure of self-control in the face of temptation

76
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What is alcohol myopia?

a. Genetic inability to process alcohol properly

b. Short-sighted state where immediate experiences disproportionately influence behaviour

c. A medical condition caused by chronic alcohol use

d. A coping mechanism for dealing with negative emotions

b. Short-sighted where immediate experiences disproportionately influence behaviour

77
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How does the disease model of physiological dependence differ from moral weakness model?

a. It views drug use disorders as a failure of self-control

b. It attributes drug use disorders to underlying physiological causes

c. It emphasizes punishment for individuals with substance use disorders

d. It ignores biological factors in substance misuse

b. It attributes drug use disorders to underlying physiological causes

78
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How do poor economic conditions influence substance use?

a. Decrease exposure to drugs

b. Limit access to drugs but increase the need for coping mechanisms

c. Reduce likelihood of developing substance use disorders

d. Primarily affect drug metabolism

b. Limit access to drugs but increase the need for coping mechanisms

79
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What psychological dimensions explains why some people use substances to cope with trauma or stress?

a. Expectancy effect

b. Self-medication and tension reduction

c. Alcohol myopia

d. Opponent-process theory

b. Self-medication and tension reduction

80
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What is the primary goal of harm reduction approaches in substance use treatment?

a. Complete abstinence from substance use

b. Minimizing the harm associated with substance use

c. Encouraging clients to use safer alternatives to drugs

d. Gradual reduction of drug use to moderate levels

b. Minimizing the harm associated with substance use

81
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Which of the following is an example of agonist substitution treatment?

a. Disulfiram for alcohol dependence

b. Methadone for heroin addiction

c. Naltrexone for opioid misuse

d. Clonidine for opioid withdrawal

b. Methadone for heroin addiction

82
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Why must individuals undergo complete opioid withdrawal before starting naltrexone?

a. To prevent unpleasant withdrawal symptoms cause by naltrexone

b. To ensure naltrexone effectively reduces cravings

c. To assess the individual’s motivation for treatment

d. To minimize the risk of overdose

a. To prevent unpleasant withdrawal symptoms cause by naltrexone

83
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Which psychosocial treatment approach involves pairing substance use with an unpleasant experience, such as nausea or an electric shock?

a. Aversion therapy

b. Covert sensitization

c. Contingency management

d. Motivational enhancement therapy

a. Aversion therapy

84
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What is the role of motivational enhancement therapy in treating substance use disorders?

a. Providing social support through group meetings

b. Addressing relapse prevention through cognitive-behavioural strategies

c. Increasing individuals’ motivation to change and reduce substance use

d. Encouraging clients to switch to less harmful substances

c. Increasing individuals’ motivation to change and reduce substance use

85
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Which of the following is a key characteristic of of Alcoholics Anonymous?

a. Focuses on controlled drinking as a viable alternative to abstinence

b. Operates as a harm reduction approach

c. Emphasizes the notion of alcohol use disorder as a disease

d. Uses contingency management strategies to encourage abstinence

c. Emphasizes the notion of alcohol use disorder as a disease

86
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What is one reason controlled drinking programs are controversial?

a. Not supported by research evidence

b. Suggest abstinence may not be necessary for all individuals

c. Rely on expensive inpatient treatment facilities

d. Often lead to higher relapse rates compared to other methods

b. Suggest abstinence may not be necessary for all individuals

87
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What is a key feature of community reinforcement approaches?

a. Administering agonist drugs like methadone

b. Providing safe injection sites for drug users

c. Addressing several aspects of a person’s life that contribute to substance use

d. Offering withdrawal medications like benzodiazepines

c. Addressing several aspects of a person’s life that contribute to substance use

88
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How does CBT address substance use disorders?

a. Provides supportive community for individuals seeking abstinence

b. Addresses reactions to cues, thoughts, and behaviours related to substance use

c. Replaces a dangerous drug with a chemically similar one

d. Pairs substance use with unpleasant physical experiences

b. Addresses reactions to cues, thoughts, and behaviours related to substance use

89
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What is one of the benefits of safe injection sites?

a. Encouraging complete abstinence from substance use

b. Decreasing public drug injection and injection-related litter

c. Ensuring a higher success rate for methadone treatment programs

d. Providing medication like naltrexone directly on-site

b. Decreasing public drug injection and injection-related litter

90
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What is one of the primary diagnostic criteria for gambling disorder?

a. Individual frequently gambles with no significant consequences

b. Individual needs to gamble with increasing amounts of money to achieve excitement

c. Individual experiences withdrawal symptoms similar to those seen in substance use disorders

d. Individual always gambles with pre-determined budget

b. Individual needs to gamble with increasing amounts of money to achieve excitement

91
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Which of the following is a symptom of gambling disorder?

a. Individual is preoccupied with thoughts of gambling, including reliving past experiences

b. Individual avoids all thoughts of gambling

c. Individual experiences extreme joy from gambling and no distress

d. Individual consistently wins at gambling and feels no negative consequences

a. Individual is preoccupied with thoughts of gambling, including reliving past experiences

92
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