TBS Exam 4

What are the three categories of military awards?

Unit awards, personal/military decorations, campaign/service awards.

What does the 'C' device signify when worn on a personal military decoration?

Recognition of meritorious achievement under combat conditions.

What is the purpose of the 'V' device?

To denote acts of heroism above normal expectations during direct combat.

What is the intent of the 'R' device?

To recognize significant effects on the enemy without direct exposure to threat.

3 squad roles in urban ops?

Assault, support, security

What is the role of the security fireteam?

To provide isolation at the point of entry for the assault element.

What does the 'gain a foothold' acronym SOSRA stand for?

Suppress, Obscure, Secure, Reduce, Assault.

5 steps of the Urban Attack Cycle (RIGS-C)

Recon, Isolate, Gain a Foothold, Seize the Objective, Consolidate

What is the goal of the isolation phase in urban offensive operations?

To prevent the enemy from withdrawing or reinforcing the objective.

What does the term 'traffic cop' refer to in urban operations?

A designated individual controlling the flow of reinforcements into the objective.

What is the purpose of the 'hall boss' in urban operations?

To direct the flow of Marines to specific points within the building.

What are the 3 levels of the urban environment?

Supersurface, Surface, Subsurface

What is the primary purpose of the support squad in urban operations?

To suppress the enemy on the objective using direct fires.

What are the seven general characteristics of urban defense?

Preparation, Protection, Obstacles, Concealment, Security, Disruption, Massing and Concentration, Maneuver, Operations in Depth, Flexibility.

What is the purpose of a block defense?

To deny enemy access to a given area or prevent enemy advance in a specified direction.

What defines a strong point in a defensive position?

A key point that is strongly fortified and heavily armed, around which other positions are grouped.

What does the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM) Part IV list?

Each punitive article from 77 to 134.

What is the role of the Convening Authority (CA)?

The Commander who has the power to convene courts-martial.

What is Non-Punitive (administrative) Measures?

Measures aimed at correcting performance deficiencies without punishment.

What is Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP)?

A punishment for minor offenses that does not require a court-martial.

What is the maximum confinement for a Summary Court-Martial (SCM)?

Up to 30 days.

What is required for a General Court-Martial (GCM)?

An Article 32 Hearing and it involves federal felony convictions.

What is a search in military law?

A quest for evidence authorized by the Commanding Officer (CO).

What is required for a search authorization?

Probable cause that evidence of a crime will be found in a certain location.

What is an exigent search?

A search conducted when there is not enough time to get CO approval, requiring probable cause.

What are Article 31 Rights?

Rights that must be read to anyone subject to the UCMJ when suspected of an offense.

What are the 2 types of discharges in military law?

Punitive (e.g., Bad Conduct, Dishonorable) and Administrative (e.g., Honorable, General).

What is the purpose of the JEPES?

To evaluate performance for promotions, not as a reward for past performance.

What are the Four Pillars of JEPES?

Command Input, Warfighting, Mental Agility, Physical Toughness.

What is the significance of the FITREP?

It is used for evaluating E-5 to E-9, O-1 to O-8

What is a command investigation?

An investigation to gather, analyze, and record relevant information about an incident.

What does 'subterfuge search' refer to?

Searches conducted primarily to obtain evidence for use in trial.

What is the purpose of a Line of Duty Investigation?

To determine if injuries were sustained in the line of duty and not due to misconduct.

What are the three possible determinations for Line of Duty (LoD)?

In the line of duty and not due to misconduct; not in the line of duty and not due to misconduct; not in the line of duty and due to misconduct.

What is the purpose of a preliminary inquiry?

To help a commander determine whether an investigation is warranted.

What is the role of the Senior Enlisted Reviewer (SER) in JPES?

To review the performance evaluations of enlisted Marines.

What does 'frocking' refer to in a military context?

To wear the rank and hold the responsibility prior to regular promotion and financial compensation.

What is 'meritorious' in military terms?

Referring to recognition or awards based on merit.

What is the purpose of 'remedial' promotions?

Afforded to the grades of PFC through Sgt for administrative errors which delayed or prevented a Marine from being promoted.

What is the time frame for submitting a remedial promotion?

Within 1 year.

Who submits the remedial promotion for enlisted personnel?

Submitted by the command for PFC through Sgt and by the Marine for SNCO grades.

What does MDO stand for?

Multi-Domain Operations.

What is the goal of Multi-Domain Operations (MDO)?

To integrate assets across all domains of the battle space to overcome an adversary's strengths.

What are the five domains referred to in military operations?

Land, air, maritime, space, and cyberspace.

What are 'non-kinetic' operations?

Operations that produce effects without the use of force, utilizing information operations.

What is the M142 HIMARS?

A light multiple rocket or tactical ballistic missile launcher organic to the US Marine Corps and Army.

What is the purpose of loitering munitions?

To wait until a target is identified and then crash into it, minimizing collateral damage.

What does UAS stand for?

Unmanned Aerial Systems.

What is the mission of Marine Corps Cyberspace Command?

To conduct full spectrum cyberspace operations, including defensive and offensive cyberspace operations.

What is Electronic Warfare (EW)?

Military action involving the use of electromagnetic energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum or to attack the enemy.

What are the 5 types of Amphibious Operations?

Raid, Assault, Demonstration, Withdrawal, Other

What is an Amphibious Assault?

The principal type of amphibious operation involving establishing a force on a hostile shore.

What is an Amphibious Raid?

A limited type of amphibious operation involving a swift incursion into an objective followed by a planned withdrawal.

What is the definition of an Amphibious Task Force?

The Navy task-organized force formed to conduct amphibious ops

What is the purpose of Littoral Maneuver?

To transition ready-to-fight combat forces from the sea to the shore to achieve a position of advantage over the enemy.

What is the definition of 'Operational Maneuver from the Sea' (OMFTS)?

The application of maneuver warfare to a maritime campaign

What is the role of the Radio Battalion (RadBn)?

To provide COMSEC monitoring, tactical SIGINT, electronic warfare, and special intelligence communications support.

What are Expeditionary Operations designed for?

To bring everything necessary to accomplish the mission.

5 phases of Amphibious Operations (PERMA)

Planning, Embarkation, Rehearsals, Movement, Action

What does the Landing Plan Considerations represent?

The integrated sum of detailed plans for waterborne and airborne ship-to-shore movement.

What is the mission of the Amphibious Command Ship (LCC-19 Blue Ridge Class)?

To function as the command ship for a joint task force and serve as a C4I platform.

What distinguishes the Wasp Class Amphibious Assault Ship (LHD-1)?

It is the largest amphibious ship in the world.

What is the primary mission of the Dock Landing Ship (LSD-41 Whidbey Island Class)?

To transport and launch amphibious craft and vehicles in assaults.

What does the Marine Corps Reserve's mission entail?

To augment and reinforce Active Component Marine forces during war or national emergencies.

What is the Ready Reserve?

Reserve units and individual members liable for immediate active duty during war or national emergency.

What is the Selected Reserve (SELRES)?

The part of the Ready Reserve consisting of members of Selected Marine Corps Reserve units.

What is the Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)?

A category of reserve members who are not in active service but can be called upon.

What is the Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF)?

The principal warfighting organization of the Marine Corps, typically deploys with 60 days of sustainment.

What is the Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB)?

The "middle- weight" MAGTF; a crisis response force capable of forcible entry and enabling the introduction of follow-on forces; fully capable aviation element that performs all six functions of Marine aviation and is self-sustaining for 30 days

What defines a Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU)?

A standard forward-deployed organization providing immediate sea-based response.

What is the purpose of the Special Purpose Marine Air-Ground Task Force (SPMAGTF)?

To conduct a specific mission for which a standing MAGTF is inappropriate or unavailable.

What is the IRR in the context of military manpower?

The Individual Ready Reserve (IRR) is a manpower pool of individuals available for mobilization who have had training and previously served in the Active Component or in the SELRES.

What are the categories of individuals in the IRR?

1. Those who have not completed their military service obligation. 2. Those who have completed their service obligation and are in the Ready Reserve by voluntary agreement. 3. Mandatory participants authorized to transfer to the IRR.

What is the Standby Reserve?

The Standby Reserve consists of Marines who cannot meet participation requirements of the Ready Reserve but wish to maintain their affiliation.

What are the two categories of the Standby Reserve?

1. Standby Reserve-Active Status List. 2. Standby Reserve-Inactive Status List.

What is the mission of the Navy?

To maintain, train, and equip combat-ready naval forces capable of winning wars, deterring aggression, and maintaining freedom of the seas.

What are the three principal components of the Department of the Navy?

1. The Navy Department. 2. The Operating Forces. 3. The Shore Establishment.

What are the three primary functions the Navy operates to support?

1. Deterrence. 2. Sea Control. 3. Power Projection.

What are the two chains of command in the Navy?

1. Operational. 2. Administrative.

What are the two largest operational units within the U.S. Navy?

1. Carrier Strike Group (CSG). 2. Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG).

How do Core Values relate to Virtues?

Core Values determine virtues; they are the ends Marines strive for, while virtues are the habits/steps to achieve those ends.

What are the two main ways Core Values manifest?

1. Moral Excellence. 2. Professional Excellence.

What is the National Security Strategy (NSS)?

A report from the President to Congress communicating the executive branch's national security vision.

What is Expeditionary Advanced Base Operations (EABO)?

A concept for the Marine Corps' future involving small, mobile, low-signature bases established on key maritime terrain.

What are the characteristics of EABO?

1. Stand-In. 2. Mobile. 3. Persistent. 4. Low Signature. 5. Integrated. 6. Cost-Effective.

Where is I MEF?

Camp Pendleton, CA

Where is II MEF?

Camp Lejeune, NC

Where is III MEF?

Okinawa, Japan

GCE/ACE/LCE of I MEF?

1st MARDIV, 3rd MAW, 1st MLG

GCE/ACE/LCE of II MEF?

2nd MARDIV, 2nd MAW, 2nd MLG

GCE/ACE/LCE of III MEF?

3rd MARDIV, 1st MAW, 3rd MLG