LRH SER KYLE REINFORCEMENT

In the application of Lean Six Sigma, which of the following is/are considered wastes:
I. Waiting
II. Defects
II. Motion
IV. Emotion

A. I, III

B. II, IV

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

C. I, II, III

Which part of quality assurance is described when the physician ensures that in cases of typhoid fever, the specimen to be requested for culture on the first week of illness is blood?

A. Pre-preanalytical

B. Preanalytical

C. Analytical

D. Post-analytical

A. Pre-preanalytical

Which is part of pre-preanalytical phase?

A. Sorting

B. Aliquoting

C. Centrifugation

D. Test requisition

D. Test requisition

Grams of heparin per ml of blood when used in chemistry tests

A. 2 micrograms

B. 0.2 micrograms

C. 2 milligrams

D. 0.2 milligrams

D. 0.2 milligrams

What is used to zero the spectrophotometer before reading the test sample?

A. Calibrator

B. Sample blank

C. Reagent blank

D. Standard

C. Reagent blank

This is used to zero an instrument during a test procedure A. Calibrator B. Sample blank C. Reagent blank D. Standard

B. Sample blank

Convert 2 M NaCl to w/v% solution A. 10 B. 11.7 C. 13.5 D. 23.4

B. 11.7

Convert 9.6% (w/v) NaCl to Normality (N) A. 1.64 B. 12.3 C. 6.74 D. 8.9

A. 1.64

What is used to calibrate pH measurement? A. Distilled water B. Saline C. Standard buffers D. Tap water

C. Standard buffers

What is best used for potentiometry? A. Enzymes B. Proteins C. Electrolytes D. Lipids

C. Electrolytes

Light source used in fluorometry

A. Tungsten
B. Hollow cathode
C. Mercury arc
D. Incandescent

C. Mercury arc

Critical value for glucose A. >250 mg/dL B. >300 mg/dL C. >400 mg/dL D. >500 mg/dL

D. >500 mg/dL

The preferred screening test for diabetes is non-pregnant adults is measurement of A. Fasting plasma glucose B. Random plasma glucose C. Glycohemoglobin D. Depends on patient factors

D. Depends on patient factors

Xanthelasma A. Hyperbilirubinemia B. Dyslipidemia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hyperaldosteronism

B. Dyslipidemia

This is used as a stain for lipoprotien electrophoresis
A. Amido black B. Ponceau S C. Coomiassie blue D. Oil Red O

D. Oil Red O

Which is true for ascites? A. Hyperalbuminemia B. Hypoalbuminemia C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypoglycemia

B. Hypoalbuminemia
↑ Hydrostatic Pressure = ↓ Osmotic Pressure = ↓ Albumin

\Ascites is characterized by fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, often due to liver cirrhosis or heart failure, leading to low levels of albumin in the blood.

Protein used as an indicator of nutritional status A. B trace protein B. a1-acid glycoprotein C. Prealbumin D. Haptoglobin

C. Prealbumin

Analyte that is helpful in differentiating bacterial from non-bacterial infection A. Troponin B. Haptoglobin C. B2-microglobulin D. Procalcitonin

D. Procalcitonin

What specimen/s/is/are collected for determination of creatinine clearance? A. Blood and 24-hour urine B. First morning urine C. Plasma and midstream clean catch urine D. Serum and suprapubic urine

A. Blood and 24-hour urine

Which condition is most likely present if the BUN is 80 mg/dL and creatinine is 4 mg/dL A. Malnutrition B. Chronic Kidney disease C. Chronic liver disease D. Dehydration

B. Chronic Kidney disease

What are the products of the forward reaction for AST determination?

A. Pyruvate + Glutamate

B. a-ketoglutarate + Glutamate

C. Oxaloacetate + Glutamate

D. a-ketoglutarate + Lactate

C. Oxaloacetate + Glutamate

What is the coupling enzyme of the second reaction for AST determination? A. Aspartate aminotransferase B. Lactate dehydrogenase C. Malate dehydrogenase D. Alcohol dehydrogenase

C. Malate dehydrogenase

Which enzyme is elevated in acute pancreatitis?

A. CK B. LPS C. AST D. ALD

B. LPS

Which enzyme marker is best to identify cardiac injury? A. Troponin I B. LDH C. AST D. CK-MB

D. CK-MB

What is the most specific marker for myocardial injury? A. CK-MB B. AST C. LD D. Troponin

D. Troponin

What is the most commonly requested to assess cardiovascular risk? A. Troponin B. Lipids C. CK-MB D. CRP

B. Lipids

All of the following are causes of hyperkalemia except: A. Dehydration B. Severe sweating C. Addison's Disease D. Antihypertensive medication

B. Severe sweating - HYPOKALEMIA

All of the following are causes of hypokalemia except: A. Gastric suction B. Diuretics C. Cushing's syndrome D. ACE inhibitors

D. ACE inhibitors

Which of the following is the likely initial physiologic compensatory response to metabolic acidosis? A. Hyperventilation B. Hypoventilation C. Increased tubular reabsorption of HCO3 D. Reduced tubular reabsorption of HCO3

A. Hyperventilation

In clinical chemistry analyzers, why is the specimen acidified before measuring total carbon dioxide? A. To produce acid hematin and derive CO2 levels B. To form carbon monoxide C. To prevent bicarbonate into becoming gaseous CO2 D. To convert various forms of CO2 into gas

D. To convert various forms of CO2 into gas

A physician requested for cholinesterase for his patient who is a farmer. What is the possible indication for this laboratory request?

A. Chronic alcoholism

B. Anthrax infection

C. Organophosphate poisoning

D. Mesothelioma

C. Organophosphate poisoning

All are true about arsenic, EXCEPT: A. It is a potential carcinogen B. It has anti-inflammatory properties C. It has been used to treat acute leukemia D. It is a natural compound

B. It has anti-inflammatory properties

Which hormone is responsible for an increase in body temperature after ovulation? A. Estrogen B. LH C. Progesterone D. FSH

C. Progesterone

What is the predominant estrogen seen in males? A. Estrone B. Estradiol C. Estrogen D. Estriol

B. Estradiol

Which of the following acids is not considered to be an extreme hazard for humans? A. HCl B. Sulfuric C. Acetic D. Boric

D. Boric

You swabbed the back of a patient's throat. What organism would most likely be isolated? A. B. pertussis B. S. pyogenes C. Neisseria spp. D. RSV

B. S. pyogenes

Which of the following is true regarding the use of anticoagulants in specimen collection

I. Citrate and EDTA are used for microbiology specimens

II. SPS is the most common anticoagulant used in microbiology

III. Heparin may be used for isolation of Mycobacterium spp.

IV. Neisseria spp. is inhibited by lower concentrations of SPS

A. I,II

B. II, III, IV

C. II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

C. II, III

Which of the following is not a transport medium for Vibrio? A. Stuart B. Amies C. Buffered glycerol saline D. Cary-Blair

C. Buffered glycerol saline

All urine samples must be processed within A. 1 hr B. 2 hrs C. 6 hrs D. 8 hrs

B. 2 hrs

Typical calibration of inoculating loop used for urine cultures A. 1 uL B. 10 uL C. 100 uL D. 1000 uL

A. 1 uL

Addition of egg yolk to nutrient agar will make it: A. Differential B. Enrichment C. Selective D. General purpose

A. Differential

What type of incubator is used to incubate organisms which favor lower temperature? A. Agitator B. BOD C. Bioreactor D. Dry bath

B. BOD

Agar plates are inverted during incubation in order to: A. Prevent condensate from dropping onto medium B. Prevent overgrowth of colonies C. Facilitate easier storage D. Maintain sterility of the medium

A. Prevent condensate from dropping onto medium

Which of the following will result in a falsely large zone of inhibition? A. Agar depth too thick B. Agar depth too thin C. Inoculum too heavy D. Too much moisture on agar

B. Agar depth too thin

Very low pH of Mueller Hinton agar will result in: A. Large zone of inhibition (false susceptible) B. Decreased activity of erythromycin C. Increased activity of tetracycline D. False resistance to sulfonamides

B. Decreased activity of erythromycin

What is the inoculum size used in disk diffusion susceptibility testing? A. 5x10^5 CFU/mL B. 1.5 x10^6 CFU/mL C. 5x10^8 CFU/mL D. 1.5x10^8 CFU/mL

D. 1.5x108 CFU/mL

Upon observing a disk diffusion plate, you noticed a zone within a zone of inhibition. Which of the following could have possibly caused this? A. Contamination B. Proteus swarming C. Improper disk storage D. Sulfonamide disk

B. Proteus swarming

This pertains to the amount of bacteria in milk which can form colonies when plated using standard plating methods A. Most probable number B. Somatic cell count C. Total bacterial count D. Coliform count

C. Total bacterial count

This staphylococcal exotoxin disrupts smooth muscles in blood vessels and is toxic to hepatocytes and platelets

A. Gamma B. Delta C. Beta D. Alpha

D. Alpha

IMVIC: ++-+ Oxidase: - Phenylalanine deaminase: + Motility: + A. Providencia B. Proteus C. Serratia D. Edwardsiella

A. Providencia

This nucleic acid amplification technique uses four primers and proceeds using a constant temperature

A. Invader

B. Branched DNA

C. LAMP

D. Hybrid capture

C. LAMP

Which statements are correct regarding collection of fecal specimens in parasitology?

I. Ideal number is three specimens submitted every other day.

II. In a patient suspect of having intestinal amoebiasis, six specimens may be recommended.

III. If a series of six specimens is requested, the specimens should be collected within no more than 10 days.

IV. Multiple specimens may be submitted on the same day in cases of severe, watery diarrhea.

A. I, III

B. I, II

C. II, III, IV

D. I, II, IV

D. I, II, IV > 14 days

In FECT, which substance is found in the topmost layer of the solution

A. Ether
B. Debris
C. Formalin
D. Sediment
A. Ether

What specific gravity of zinc sulfate should be used for the flotation concentration procedure performed on fresh stool?

A. 1.16

B. 1.17

C. 1.18

D. 1.15

C. 1.18

Which of the following are reasons why the flotation concentration is used less frequently than the sedimentation concentration?

I. Not all parasites will float

II. Protozoa tend to become distorted when left in contact with zinc sulfate

III. The surface film and sediment both need to be examined

IV. The specific gravity of fluid needs to be checked periodically

A. I,II

B. I,III

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

D. I, II, III, IV

What is the best anticoagulant to use for blood parasite specimens?

A. Heparin
B. SPS
C. EDTA
D. Citrate

C. EDTA

Pear-shaped protozoan with 4 pairs of flagella, claw-hammer-shaped median bodies, and falling-leaf motility

A. T. vaginalis

B. C. mesnili

C. G. lamblia

D. D. fragilis

C. G. lamblia

Which is the etiologic agent of kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis?

A. L. tropica

B. L. braziliensis

C. L. mexicana

D. L. donovani

D. L. donovani

This infectious agent is usually acquired through the bite of ticks but can also be acquired through transfusion of infected blood product

A. Dengue

B. Syphilis

C. Babesia

D. Plasmodium

C. Babesia

Thesis is the slowly multiplying infectious stage of Toxoplasma found in tissue cysts

A. Tachyzoite
B. Merozoite
C. Bradyzoite
D. Sporozoite
C. Bradyzoite

Which of the following infections is acquired through ingestion of oocyts from food contaminated with cat feces?

A. Cystoisosporiasis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Cyclosporiasis
D. Clonorchiasis
B. Toxoplasmosis

Similar to a hookworm egg but more elongated and has a slightly pointed end

A. Trichostrongylus
B. Toxocara
C. Ancylostoma
D. Trichinella
A. Trichostrongylus

Characteristic of S. stercoralis filariform larva

A. Short buccal cavity
B. Small genital primordium
C. Short esophagus
D. Notched tail
D. Notched tail

Which of the following trematode eggs is mature when passed out by an infected host?

A. F. hepatica
B. P. westermani
C. S. haematobium
D. E. ilocanum
C. S. haematobium

This trematode may be acquired by humans through ingestion of freshwater aquatic plants

A. F. gigantica
B. C. sinensis
C. E. pancreaticum
D. P. westermani
A. F. gigantica

This is a recognizable part of cestodes that is characterized by a high capability of regeneration

A. Scolex
B. Neck
C. Proglottids
D. Rostellum
B. Neck

This amoeba has a centrally located nucleus in its trophozoite form and has no cyst stage.

A. E. moshlovskii
B. E. nana
C. E. polecki
D. E. gingivalis
D. E. gingivalis

Infects the skin and nails

A. Microsporum
B. Epidermophyton
C. Trichophyton
D. Trichosporon
B. Epidermophyton

Enveloped virus with dsDNA and icosahedral capsid

A. Parvoviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Hepadnaviridae
D. Hepadnaviridae

Associated with hemorrhagic cystitis in allogenic hematopoietic cell transplant patients

A. EBV
B. JC virus
C. VZV
D. BK virus
D. BK virus

Which of the following is a concentration test?

A. Specific gravity
B. Creatinine
C. Inulin
D. Microalbumin
A. Specific gravity

1.015

A. 5% NaCl
B. Sucrose
C. Distilled water
D. 3% NaCl
D. 3% NaCl

Which is correct regarding use of urinometer?

A. Read under the meniscus
B. Read above the meniscus
C. Do not pour more than 8 mL of urine
D. Put the urinometer first before adding the urine
A. Read under the meniscus

A specimen initially tested negative for nitrite on the reagent strip. Repeat test after a few hours now showed a positive result for nitrite. Which of the following may have caused this?

A. Insufficient contact time between reagent strip and urinary nitrite
B. Highly pigmented urine
C. Multiplication of nitrate-reducing bacteria
D. Nonreductase-containing bacteria
C. Multiplication of nitrate-reducing bacteria

Which enzyme in bacteria must be present in order for the nitrite test to yield a pink color?

A. Oxidase
B. Peroxidase
C. Reductase
D. Protease
C. Reductase

A track-and-field athlete who had just finished a run came in for urinalysis. The reagent strip tested positive for blood. Which of the following will confirm that the substance which caused the positive reagent strip reaction is NOT hemoglobin?

A. Addition of ammonium sulfate then testing the supernatant which will give a positive reagent strip for blood
B. Addition of ammonium sulfate than testing the supernatant which will give a negative reagent strip test for blood
C. Addition of ammonium sulfate and formation of a red precipitate
D. Presence of a uniformly green-blue colored pad
A. Addition of ammonium sulfate then testing the supernatant which will give a positive reagent strip for blood

Which is true of Bence Jones protein?

A. They are immunoglobulin light and heavy chains
B. Coagulates at 40C and dissolves at 100C
C. Coagulates at 100C and dissolves at 40C
D. Usually seen in cases of T-cell leukemia
B. Coagulates at 40C and dissolves at 100C

Hansel stain is used to aid in the identification of

A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Epithelial cells
D. Eosinophils
D. Eosinophils

Which of the following is a good preservative for urine cytology?

A. Thymol
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Saccomanno
D. Acetic acid
C. Saccomanno

Triple ammonium phosphate crystals resemble which shape under the microscope?

A. Thorny apples
B. Envelopes
C. Rhomboids
D. Coffin lids
D. Coffin lids

Yellow-brown thorny applies in urine

A. Amorphous phosphate
B. Ammonium biurate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Triple phosphate
B. Ammonium biurate

Positive reaction of MPS paper test:

A. White
B. Blue spot
C. Orange
D. Canary yellow
B. Blue spot

Which of the following conditions will not present with mucoploysaccharides in urine?

A. Hunter
B. Hurler
C. Sanfilippo
D. Lesch-Nyhan
D. Lesch-Nyhan

Cell counts in a slightly blood CSF specimen must be done using what dilution?

A. 1:10
B. 1:100
C. 1:200
D. 1:10,000
C. 1:200

Normal sperm viability

A. 50
B. 100
C. 75
D. 90
A. 50

Normal sperm movement

A. Wiggles head from side to side
B. Rapid, straight
C. Slow forward progression
D. Some lateral movement
B. Rapid, straight

Infertility is most likely to be a problem in which case?

A. Flagella measures 45 micrometers
B. Acrosomal cap encompasses 1/4 of the head
C. Head is approximately 5 micrometers long
D. Acrosomal cap coverts more than half of the nucleus
B. Acrosomal cap encompasses 1/4 of the head

Compute for the concentration of round cells if the round cells counted per 100 sperm is 20, and the sperm concentration is 30x10^6/mL

A. 1,000,000/mL
B. 6,000,000/mL
C. 150,000/mL
D. 6,000/mL
B. 6,000,000/mL

Curschmann spirals are
A. Yellowish or gray caseous matter the size of a pinhead
B. Wavy threads coiled into balls usually found with Charcot-Leyden crystals
C. Often mistake for Blastomyces
D. Branching tree-like structures made of fluids in the bronchi

B. Wavy threads coiled into balls usually found with Charcot-Leyden crystals

A = dittrich plugs
C = myelin globules
D = bronchial casts

What is the pH of stool?

A. 5.5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8.5
C. 7

The medical technologist failed to wipe the slide before preparing a blood smear. What will be the characteristic of the smear?

A. Wavy with stripes
B. With holes
C. Tail on the feathered edge
D. Too thick smear
B. With holes

The hematology section's spreader slide has been used repetitively and has not been cleaned or replaced since. What will be the most likely characteristic of the blood smears prepared using this spreader?

A. Wavy with stripes
B. With bubbles
C. Streaks/tails on feathered edge
D. Blue specks at the feathered edge
C. Streaks/tails on feathered edge

The blood film showed linear lines arranged horizontally to the leading edge. What error in smear preparation could have caused this?

A. Drop of blood too small
B. Grease on the slide
C. Time delay from drop to spread
D. Hesitation in forward motion
D. Hesitation in forward motion

Storage of specimens at cold temperature will result in all of the following, except:

A. Precipitation of large von Willibrand factor multimers
B. Activation of Factor VII
C. Destruction of platelet integrity
D. Deterioration of Factor V
D. Deterioration of Factor V

Function of erythropoietin

I. Promote cell division and maturation
II. Promote early release of erythroid precursors
III. Decrease apoptosis of RBC progenitors
IV. Accelerate hemoglobin production

A. I only
B. I, II
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV

The primary site of hematopoiesis by mid-fetal life is the

A. Liver
B. Yolk sac
C. Bone Marrow
D. Lymph nodes

Folded over RBC membrane

A. P. falciparum
B. Sickle cell
C. Thalassemia
D. Hgb C
D. Hgb C

Characterized by excess unpaired B chains that form tetramers in adults (B4)

A. a-thalassemia minor
B. b-thalassemia major
C. Hb Bart syndrome
D. Hb H disease
D. Hb H disease

Last immature WBC stage capable of mitosis

A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte
C. Metamyelocyte
D. Band
B. Myelocyte

Which of the following is the correct trend in WBC maturation?

A. Dark blue to pale blue
B. Acidic to basophilic
C. Red violet to dark blue
D. Light blue to dark blue
A. Dark blue to pale blu