Pharm E3- Urology

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Last updated 2:50 AM on 4/1/25
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115 Terms

1
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How does the blood flow in an erection?

Increased arterial flow IN & decreased venous flow OUT

2
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What is testosterone converted into?

DHT by 5a reductase

Estradiol by aromatase

3
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What antidepressants can cause ED (in order of most likely to and least like to)?

TCAs > SSRIs > SNRIs > bupropion

4
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What anticholinergics can cause ED?

Antihistamines (can use 2nd gen), antiparkinsonian agents, TCAs, phenothiazines

5
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How can dopamine antagonists (phenothiazine & metoclopramide) cause ED?

Dopamine blockade increases prolactin levels → decreases testosterone production

6
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What drugs can cause ED by suppressing testosterone mediated libido stimulation?

Estrogens, anti androgens, digoxin, spironolactone, ketoconazole, cimetidine

7
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What CNS depressants can cause ED by suppressing perception of psychogenic stimuli?

Benzodiazepines, opiates, large doses of ethanol, anticonvulsants

8
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What agents can cause ED by decreasing penile flow which reduces arteriolar flow to corpora?

Diuretics, BBs, central sympatholytics (methyldopa, clonidine)

9
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What antihypertensive agents are less likely to cause ED?

ACEi, ARBs, CCBs

10
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What other miscellaneous drugs can cause ED?

Finasteride, dutasteride, lithium carbonate, MAOIs, gemfibrozil

11
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ED treatment algorithm

knowt flashcard image
12
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How do vacuum erection devices work to treat ED?

Pump generates negative vacuum pressure to draw arterial blood into cavernosa

*onsets 3-20 minutes

13
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In what ED patients would it be good to use a vacuum erection device?

Can’t use PDE-5i or other oral agents

can be used in combo or before surgery; effective but not discreet

14
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How do phosphodiesterase inhibitors (PDEi) work to treat ED?

inhibits metabolism of cGMP → increases cGMP → less Ca gets into cells → more vasodilation → produces erection

15
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What metabolizes cGMP into GMP (inactive) & inhibits erections?

Phosphodiesterase (PDE)

16
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What drugs are phosphodiesterase inhibitors (PDEi)?

Sildenafil (Viagra)

Vardenafil (Levitra/Staxyn)

Tadalafil (Cialis)

Avanafil (Stendra)

17
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Which PDEIs inhibit PDE-6 (in rods & cones of eye)?

*test Q

Sildenafil

18
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Which PDEI inhibits PDE-11 (striated muscle)?

*test Q

Tadalafil

19
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Which PDEI’s have a delayed onset if taken within 2 hours of a fatty meals if taken w/in 2 hours (pt needs to take earlier)?

** test Q

Sildenafil & Vardenafil

20
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Which PDEI has a slower onset but the longest duration of 24-36 hours?

** test Q

Tadalafil

21
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What is first line for ED, especially in younger patients?

PDE inhibitors

22
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What is likely to cause a failure of PDEIs when using for ED?

*try atleast 5-8 doses

Comorbid conditions (DM, PVD, etc), excess alcohol, food interactions

23
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In what patients should PDEIs be avoided due to risk of priapism?

Healthy patients (no issues with erections), sick cell, leukemia, multiple myeloma, currently taking other ED meds

24
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Which PDEIs are more likely to have to have ocular symptoms (blurred vision, cyanosis)?

Sildenafil > vardenafil = avanafil > tadalafil

25
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Which PDEI is most likely to cause myalgias?

Tadalafil

26
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How are PDEIs metabolized?

CYP3A4

*sildenafil & tadalafil need renal adjustment

27
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What SEs are seen with PDEIs?

Vasodilation → HA, facial flushing, dyspepsia, nasal congestion, dizziness

8-10 mmHg drop in SBP (avoid if on multiple antihypertensives, nitrates & high risk cardiac patients)

28
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The following SE is caused by what drug?

  • nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION)

  • drop in blood flow to optic nerve → sudden U/L painless blindness

  • emergency! → irreversible

Sildenafil

29
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What reversible ocular SEs are seen with sildenafil?

Photophobia, blurred vision, loss of blue green color discrimination

30
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Which PDEI is more likely to cause QTc prolongation?

Vardenafil

31
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How should the dose of PDEI be adjusted if a patient is also taking a CYP3A4 inhibitor?

Decrease dose

32
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Why are nitrates CI in a patient who took a PDEI?

Severe hypotension from too much cGMP

*treat w/ trendelenburg position & fluids

33
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How long must a patient wait to take a nitrate after taking a PEDI?

24 hours (48 hours for tadalafil)

34
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What drug is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 used to treat ED by intracavernosal injection or intraurethral insert?

Alprostadil

35
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What ED medication is good for patients with an impaired nitric oxide pathway (DM, prostatectomy, failed PDEI tx)?

Alprostadil

36
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How does alprostadil work to treat ED?

Stimulates adenyl cyclase → increased cAMP production → dec intracellular Ca → smooth muscle relaxation → erection

*not nitric oxide dependent

37
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Which is alprostadil preferred in ED over other vasodilator intracavernosal agents (papaverine, phentolamine, atropine)?

Less risk of prolonged erections & priapism

38
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How should alprostadil be administered?

5-10 min before intercourse → T ½ of 1 minute

Duration < 1 hr (12-44 minutes)

Inject into 1 cavernous w/ aseptic technique

39
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Why might alprostadil be a a better option for ED in high risk cardiac patients?

Less systemic absorption → less SEs

40
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Would psychogenic ED or vasculogenic ED respond to lower doses of alprostadil?

Psychogenic ED

41
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What SEs are seen with intracavernosal alprostadil?

Local burning/dull pain, injection site infection, cavernosal plaques or fibrotic areas (switch injection site around), priapism (rare)

42
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What are SEs of alprostadil intraurethral suppository?

Urethral damage, stricture, difficulty voiding, fibrosis

*less bioavailability than intracavernosal

43
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What is the MC adverse effect of penile prostheses / implant (malleable or inflatable)?

Post op infection

44
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What are treatment options for BPH?

Watchful waiting, alpha 1 antagonists, 5a reductase inhibitors, PDEIs, anticholinergic, surgery

45
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What stimulates the epithelial (glandular) tissue of the prostate?

Androgens (DHT)

46
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What stimulates the stromal (smooth muscle) tissue of the prostate?

a1 adrenergic receptors (NE, estrogen)

47
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Static or dynamic factors of BPH?

  • size → prostatic enlargement physically blocks bladder neck & obstructs urinary flow

  • slower changes

  • can be caused by

    • androgen stimulation on epithelial tissue

    • estrogen stimulation on stromal tissue

Static

48
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Static or dynamic factors of BPH?

  • squeeze → excessive a-adrenergic tone on stromal tissue, bladder neck & posterior urethra

  • prostate can be normal in size

  • faster changes

  • can be triggered under stress or pain

Dynamic

49
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What medications can worsen symptoms of BPH?

Testosterone replacement → inc DHT, more prostate growth

Adrenergic agonists (pseudoephedrine, ephedrine, phenylephrine) → activates stromal tissue

Anticholinergics (antihistamines, phenothiazines, TCAs) → dec detrusor muscle contraction, inc urinary retention

50
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A patient with a history of BPH recently had a cold and took OTC pseudoephedrine. What symptom would you expect them to experience?

*example from lecture

Difficulty voiding bc pseudoephedrine is an adrenergic agonist & stimulates stromal tissue, causing constriction

51
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BPH treatment algorithm

test questions!!!

<p>test questions!!!</p>
52
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A patient with an enlarged prostate (BPH) and history of ED comes in to the office. What medication do you start them on?

**test Q

PDEI and/or a adrenergic antagonist

53
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A patient with BPH has an enlarged prostate and increased PSA. What medication do you start them on?

**test Q

5 a reductase inhibitor +/- a adrenergic antagonist

54
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A patient with BPH has a small prostate and low PSA. What medication do you start them on?

**test Q

a adrenergic antagonist

55
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A patient with BPH has predominant irritative voiding symptoms (frequency, urgency, bedwetting, nocturia). What medication do you start them on?

**test Q

a adrenergic antagonist + anticholinergic

56
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The following sx are seen in what condition?

  • Obstructive: bladder outlet obstruction, dec flow rate, incomplete & slow bladder emptying, hesitancy, bladder overdistension

  • Irritative: bladder hypertrophy & hypersensitivity, urinary frequency, urgency, bedwetting, nocturia

  • Lower urinary tract sx (LUTS): neurogenic bladder, UTI

BPH

57
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What are the pharmacologic treatment options for BPH?

Dynamic sx → a1 blockers to relax smooth muscle

Static sx → 5 a reductase to inhibitors to dec testosterone stimulation, shrink prostate

irritative sx → antimuscarinics to relax detrusor

58
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What meds are generally first line for BPH because they are rapid acting and have fewer SEs?

a1 antagonists

59
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What meds are preferred for BPH in CV patients or significantly enlarged prostates?

5a reductase inhibitors

60
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What must you ensure a BPH patient does not have before prescribing anticholinergics?

High post void residual (relaxes bladder & increases urinary retention)

61
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What drug is a first generation a1 adrenergic antagonist that is generally avoided in BPH treatment due to tachycardia & arrhythmia SEs?

Phenoxybenzamine

62
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Which generation of alpha 1 adrenergic antagonists are better for BPH because they are euro-selective for blocking a1A receptors (less SEs)?

Third generation

63
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Do a1 adrenergic antagonists affect prostate size?

No

64
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What drugs are second generation a1 adrenergic antagonists?

Prazosin (Minipress)

Terazosin (Hytrin)

Doxazosin (Cardura)

Alfuzosin (UroXatral)

65
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What are the main SEs of second gen a1 blockers?

First dose syncope, orthostatic hypotension, dizziness

(dose at nighttime to avoid)

66
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Which 2nd gen a1 blocker is the shortest acting, requires BID-TID dosing, & has the most significant CV effects?

Prazosin

67
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Which 2nd gen a1 blockers are the longest acting & have lower average serum concentrations?

Doxazosin & alfuzosin

68
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Which 2nd gen a1 blocker has the lowest risk of systemic SEs and does not require dose titration?

Alfuzosin

69
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What drugs are 3rd generation a1 adrenergic antagonists?

Tamsulosin (Flomax)
Silodosin (Rapaflo)

70
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Which 3rd gen a1 blocker is used most often, needs to be taken on an empty stomach, & should be avoided in a sulfa allergy?

Tamsulosin

71
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What SEs are seen with 3rd gen a1 blockers?

Flu like sx, nasal congestion, inability to ejaculate

*no orthostasis/dizziness

72
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What is the safest combo of PDEIs & a1 blockers to use in BPH?

*least likely to cause cause synergistic drops in BP

Tadalafil & tamsulosin

73
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What drugs are 5a reductase inhibitors?

Finasteride (Proscar) - type II inhibitor

Dutasteride (Avodart) - non selective

74
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What drug for BPH is good for patients who cannot tolerate a1 blockers and ma reduce the prevalence of prostate cancer over time?

5a reductase inhibitors

75
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What should be used in BPH for enlarged prostates > 40 g to shrink prostate by blocking the conversion of testosterone into DHT?

5a reductase inhibitors

76
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What drug is 2nd line for BPH in sexually active men due to the increased incidence of sexual SEs (gets rid of DHT which is potent form of testosterone)?

5a reductase inhibitors

77
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Which has a slower onset, a1 blockers or 5a reductase inhibitors?

5a reductase inhibitors

78
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Why is it necessary to continue use of 5a reductase inhibitors long term for BPH?

Prostate size & sx will return if stopped

79
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What SEs are associated with 5a reductase inhibitors?

ED, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, HA, N, abd pain, gynecomastia, pregnancy category X

80
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How do PDEIs work to treat BPH?

Prevent breakdown of cGMP and cause smooth muscle relaxation around prostate & bladder neck

81
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Which PDEI is preferred to use in BPH treatment?

Tadalafil

82
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What is the gold standard treatment for moderate to severe BPH unresponsive to drug therapy?

Prostatectomy

83
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What is stress urinary incontinence?

Urethral underactivity→ inadequate urethral closing pressure causes episodic low volume leakage with activity (sneeze, exercise, etc)

84
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What drugs aggravate urethral under activity (stress urinary incontinence)?

Alpha antagonists → releases smooth muscle & decreases closing pressure

ACEI → can cause coughing

85
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A patient with stress urinary incontinence is started on an ACEI, but experiences increased coughing. Which drug should they be switched to?

ARB

86
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What is urge urinary incontinence?

bladder overactivity → leakage w/ urgency (desire to void) due to involuntary contractions of detrusor

87
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What can worsen urge urinary incontinence (bladder overactivity)?

Diuretics & alcohol

88
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What is overflow incontinence?

Leakage d/t filled bladder unable to empty (chronic urinary retention)

urethral hyperactivity (MCC BPH) & bladder under activity (outlet obstruction, DM, etc)

89
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What medications can worsen urethral hyperactivity (overflow incontinence)?

TCAs→ anticholinergic properties

Alpha-agonists→ squeezing on a receptors to close urethra

90
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What medications can decrease bladder contractility (overflow incontinence)?

Anticholinergics, TCAs, CCBs, antipsychotics

91
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What kind of urinary incontinence has the following presentation?

  • leakage with physical exertion

Stress UI (urethral UNDERactivity)

92
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What kind of urinary incontinence has the following presentation?

  • urinary frequency (>8 times a day)

  • urgency

Urge UI (bladder OVERactivity)

93
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What kind of urinary incontinence has the following presentation?

  • lower abdominal fullness

  • hesitancy

  • incomplete bladder emptying

  • ± frequency & urgency

Overflow UI (urethral OVERactivity & bladder UNDERactivity)

94
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What is the first line treatment for mild-mod UI?

Non pharmacologic- behavioral interventions, lifestyle mods, toilet scheduling regimens, pelvic floor rehabilitation

95
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What drugs are anticholinergics used to treat urge UI?

Oxybutynin

Tolterodine

Trospium

Solifenacin

Darifenacin

Fesoterodine

96
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What is first line RX for urge UI?

Anticholinergics

97
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How do anticholinergics work to treat urge UI?

Antagonize muscarinic receptors & suppress premature detrusor contractions → allows bladder to relax & accommodate bigger volumes of urine

98
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What SEs are seen with anticholinergics?

Blind as a bat: mydriasis, blurred vision

Mad as a hatter: AMS

Red as a beet: flushing/vasodilation

Hot as a hare: hyperthermia, dec sweating

Dry as a bone: dry mouth, skin, mucus membranes

Bowel & bladder lose their tone: urinary retention, constipation

Heart runs alone: tachycardia

99
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What are CIs to anticholinergics?

Urinary retention, gastric retention, decreased GI motility, uncontrolled narrow angle glaucoma, MG

100
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Why are anticholinergics not good for elderly?

AMS, falls

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