MS - Kutzer

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25 Terms

1
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what category of MS is this:

temporary periods of relapses, attacks followed by a period of remission, about 85% of patients

a. relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)

b. primary progressive MS (PPMS)

c. secondary progressive MS (SPMS)

d. progression-relapsing MS (PRMS)

a.

2
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what category of MS is this:

symptoms get steadily worse with NO period of remission, about 10% of patients

a. relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)

b. primary progressive MS (PPMS)

c. secondary progressive MS (SPMS)

d. progression-relapsing MS (PRMS)

b.

3
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what category of MS is this:

slowly worsening symptoms and neurological function

a. relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)

b. primary progressive MS (PPMS)

c. secondary progressive MS (SPMS)

d. progression-relapsing MS (PRMS)

c.

4
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about ______ of patients with RRMS convert to SPMS within ______ years

a. 85%, 5-15 years

b. 50%, 10-20 years

c. 10%, 15-25 years

d. 5%, 25-35 years

b.

5
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what category of MS is this:

rare, steadily worsens from onset of first symptom, about 5% of patients

a. relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)

b. primary progressive MS (PPMS)

c. secondary progressive MS (SPMS)

d. progression-relapsing MS (PRMS)

d.

6
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list tests/tools used for MS diagnosis

CSF analysis (antibodies)

MRI

optic neuritis

gadolinium

7
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what is the most valuable diagnostic tool for MS, that establishes prognosis and disease progression?

MRI

8
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what is a common first symptom of MS?

optic neuritis - lesions on optic nerve

9
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what is gadolinium?

contrast agent

identifies new lesions and disruption of the BBB

10
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what is the dose, frequency, and ROA of Betaseron (Interferon-B)?

250 mcg (8 million units) SQ QOD

11
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what is the dose, frequency, and ROA of Avonex (Interferon-B 1b)?

30 mcg (6 million IU) IM QW

12
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what is the dose, frequency, and ROA of Plegridy (Pegylated IFN-B1a)?

tapering dose SQ BIW

13
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what medication was the first oral DMT (disease modifying therapy) approved for MS?

a. fingolimod

b. siponimod

c. ozanimod

d. ponesimod

a.

14
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list ADRs of fingolimod

bradyarrhythmia/heart block

infections

macular edema

decrease in forced expiratory volume (pts with compromised lung function)

15
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with fingolimod, what do you need to monitor? for how long after the first dose?

monitor for signs of bradycardia for 6 hours after the first dose

16
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concomitant use of __________ is contraindicated with fingolimod

class Ia and III antiarrhythmic agents

17
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what medication needs genetic testing for CYP2C9 polymorphisms?

a. ponesimod

b. cladribine

c. teriflunomide

d. siponimod

d.

18
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what medication has a BBW for hepatotoxicity and teratogenicity?

a. siponimod

b. dimethyl fumarate

c. teriflunomide

d. mitoxantrone

c.

19
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what medications have a lifetime cumulative dose? (SATA)

a. cladribine (mavenclad)

b. alemtuzumab (lemtrada)

c. rituximab (rituxan)

d. mitoxantrone (novantrone)

a. d.

20
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idk if we need to know this

what is the lifetime cumulative dose for cladribine (mavenclad)?

3.5 mg/kg

21
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idk if we need to know this

what is the lifetime cumulative dose for mitoxantrone (novantrone)?

140 mg/m²

22
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what is Pseudobulbar Palsy?

emotional outbursts

dysphonia

dysphagia

23
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what medication is used to treat Pseudobulbar Palsy?

nuedexta

24
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what drugs is nuedexta a combo of?

dextromethorphan + quinidine

25
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what medications should be used cautiously if a patient is depressed? (SATA)

a. siponimod

b. IFN

c. natalizumab

d. nuedexta

b. c.