Queens BIOL 103 Practice Exam

One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that

A. its habitat is fragmented.

B. its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.

C. it is a rare, top-level predator.

D. it is not well adapted to edge conditions.

E. its genetic diversity is very low.

E. its genetic diversity is very low.

The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is

A. the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.

B. increased worldwide standing crop.

C. an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere.

D. additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population.

E. increased worldwide primary production.

A. the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.

What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity?

A. pollution of Earth's air, water, and soil

B. disruption of trophic relationships as more and more prey species become extinct e. habitat

C. introduced species that compete with native species

D. habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction

E. overharvesting of commercially important species

D. habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction

4 Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification?

A. The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers.

B. Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.

C. Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.

D. Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers.

E. The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.

B. Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.

Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?

A. Control populations of the endangered population's predators and competitors.

B. Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.

C. Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild.

D. Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.

E. Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.

B. Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.

Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity, which one is not correct?

A. National parks are one of many types of protected areas.

B. About 25% of Earth's land area is now protected.

C. It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.

D. Most protected areas are too small to protect species.

E. Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area.

B. About 25% of Earth's land area is now protected.

Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?

a. Cyanobacterium - primary producer

b. Grasshopper - primary consumer

c. Zooplankton - primary producer

d. Fungus - detritivore

c. Zooplankton - primary producer

Which of these ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square meter?

a. A salt marsh

b. An open ocean

c. A coral reef

d. A tropical rain forest

b. An open ocean

The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to a more natural state is known as

a. Restoration ecology

b. Thermodynamics

c. Eutrophication

d. Biogeochemistry

a. Restoration ecology

Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by

a. Converting nitrogen gas to ammonia

b. Releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil

c. Converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb

d. Incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds

c. Converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem?

a. The rate of decomposition in the ecosystem

b. The production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumers

c. The trophic efficiency of the ecosystem

d. The location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystem

a. The rate of decomposition in the ecosystem

The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment yielded all of the following results except:

a. Most minerals were recycled within a forest ecosystem

b. Calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas

c. Deforestation increased water runoff

d. The nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high

b. Calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas

Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?

a. Adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability

b. Using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine

c. Reconfiguring the channel of a river

d. Adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium

d. Adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium

If you applied fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to the rate of decomposition and net ecosystem production (NEP)?

a. Both decomposition rate and NEP would decrease

b. Neither would change

c. Decomposition rate would increase and NEP would decrease

d. Decomposition rate would decrease and NEP would increase

d. Decomposition rate would decrease and NEP would increase

The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the community's

a. Secondary succession

b. Ecological niche

c. Species richness

d. Trophic structure

d. Trophic structure

The principle of competitive exclusion states that

a. Two species cannot coexist in the same habitat

b. Competition between two species always causes extinction or emigration of one species

c. Two species that have exactly the same niche cannot coexist in a community

d. Two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the habitat

c. Two species that have exactly the same niche cannot coexist in a community

Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is increased by

a. Frequent massive disturbance

b. Stable conditions with no disturbance

c. Moderate levels of disturbance

d. Human intervention to eliminate disturbance

c. Moderate levels of disturbance

According to the island equilibrium model, species richness would be greatest on an island that is

a. Large and remote

b. Small and remote

c. Large and close to a mainland

d. Small and close to a mainland

c. Large and close to a mainland

Predators that are keystone species can maintain species diversity in a community if they

a. Competitively exclude other predators

b. Prey on the community's dominant species

c. Reduce the number of disruptions in the community

d. Prey only on the least abundant species in the community

b. Prey on the community's dominant species

Food chains are sometimes short because

a. Only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species

b. Local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain

c. Most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as energy passes to the next higher level

d. Most producers are inedible

c. Most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as energy passes to the next higher level

Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?

a. Limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount

b. Influence of temperature on competition among plants

c. Influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers

d. Effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity

d. Effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity

The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate regions is that

a. Tropical communities are younger

b. Tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation

c. Higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation

d. Diversity increases as evapotranspiration decreases

b. Tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation

Population ecologist follow the fate of same-age cohorts to

a. determine a population's carrying capacity

b. determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population

c. determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes

d. determine the factors that regulate the size of a population

b. determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population

A populations carrying capacity

a. may change as environmental conditions change

b. can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model

c. increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases

d. can never be exceeded

a. may change as environmental conditions change

Scientific study of the population cycles of the snowshoes hare and its predator, the lynx, has revealed that

a. predation is the dominant factor affecting prey population cycling

b. hares and lynx are so mutually dependent that each species cannot survive without the other

c. both hare and lynx populations are regulated mainly by abiotic factors

d. the hare the hare population is r-selected and the lynx population is k-selected

a. predation is the dominant factor affecting prey population cycling

Analyzing ecological footprints reveals that

a. earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased

b. current demand industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries

c. it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans

d. the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resources are high

d. the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resources are high

Based on current growth rates, Earth human population in 2015 will be closes to

a. 2 million

b. 4 billion

c. 7 billion

d. 10 billion

c. 7 billion

The observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that

a. resources are distributed evenly

b. the members of the population competing for access to a resource

c. the members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another

d. the density of the population is low

b. the members of the population competing for access to a resource

According to the logistic growth equation

a. the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero

b. the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K

c. the population growth is zero when N equals K

d. the population grows exponentially when K is small

c. the population growth is zero when N equals K

Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves?

a. semelparous; r-selected

b. semelparous; K-selected

c. iteroparous; r-selected

d. iteroparous; K-selected

d. iteroparous; K-selected

During exponential growth, a population always

a. has a constant, instantaneous per capita growth rate

b. quickly reaches its carrying capacity

c. cycles through time

d. loses some individuals to emigration

a. has a constant, instantaneous per capita growth rate

Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized countries is incorrect?

a. life history is r-selected

b. average family size is relatively small

c. the population has undergone the demographic transition

d. the survivorship curve is Type 1

a. life history is r-selected

Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems?

a. Organismal ecology

b. Landscape ecology

c. Ecosystem ecology

d. Community ecology

b. Landscape ecology

Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake?

a. Benthic zone

b. Aphotic zone

c. Pelagic zone

d. Littoral zone

b. Aphotic zone

Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?

a. Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion

b. Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes

c. Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients

d. Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter

c. Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients

Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?

a. A distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns

b. Clear boundaries between adjacent biomes

c. Vegetation demonstrating vertical layering

d. Cold winter months

c. Vegetation demonstrating vertical layering

The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except:

a. Producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen

b. Removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

c. Moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes

d. Regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater

d. Regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater

Which statement about dispersal is false?

a. Dispersal is a common component of the life cycles of plants and animals

b. Colonization of devastated areas after floods or volcanic eruptions depends on dispersal

c. Dispersal occurs only on an evolutionary time scale

d. The ability to disperse can expand the geographic distribution of a species

c. Dispersal occurs only on an evolutionary time scale

When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes:

a. In biomes at different latitudes

b. In different depths in the ocean

c. In a community through different seasons

d. In an ecosystem as it evolves over time

a. In biomes at different latitudes

Suppose that the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species?

a. Tropical rain forest

b. Savanna

c. Desert

d. Temperate broadleaf forest

a. Tropical rain forest

If the direction of Earth's rotation reversed, the most predictable effect would be:

a. A big change in the length of the year

b. Winds blowing from west to east along the equator

c. A loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes

d. The elimination of ocean currents

b. Winds blowing from west to east along the equator

Which of the following is true of innate behavior?

a. Their expression is only weakly influences by genes

b. They occur with or without environmental stimuli

c. They are expressed in most individuals in a population

d. They occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not mammals

c. They are expressed in most individuals in a population

According to Hamilton's rule,

a. Natural selection does not favor altruistic behavior that causes the death of the altruist

b. Natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the recipient, corrected for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist

c. Natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling

d. The effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on individuals

b. Natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the recipient, corrected for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist

Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may be repeated several times with different males until no available male remains, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms best describes this behavior?

a. Polygyny

b. Polyandry

c. Promiscuity

d. Certainty of paternity

b. Polyandry

A region of the canary forebrain shrinks during the nonbreeding season and enlarges when breeding season begins. This change is probably associated with the annual:

a. Addition of new syllables to a canary's song repertoire

b. Crystallization of subsong into adult songs

c. Sensitive period in which canary parents imprint on new offspring

d. Elimination of the memorized template for songs sung the previous year

a. Addition of new syllables to a canary's song repertoire

Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely explanation is that:

a. The behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations

b. Members of different populations have different nutritional requirements

c. The cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations

d. Members of different populations differ in learning ability

c. The cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations

Which of the following is not required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection?

a. In each individual, the form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes

b. The behavior varies among individuals

c. An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed

d. Some component of the behavior is genetically inherited

a. In each individual, the form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes

Unlike an earthworm's metanephridia, a mammalian nephron

a. is intimately associated with a capillary network.

b. forms urine by changing fluid composition inside a tubule.

c. functions in both osmoregulation and excretion.

d. receives filtrate from blood instead of coelomic fluid.

e. has a transport epithelium.

d. receives filtrate from blood instead of coelomic fluid.

Which process in the nephron is least selective?

a. filtration

b. reabsorption

c. active transport

d. secretion

e. salt pumping by the loop of Henle

a. filtration

Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine production?

a. a vampire bat

b. a salmon in fresh water.

c. a marine bony fish

d. a freshwater bony fish

e. a shark inhabiting freshwater Lake Nicaragua

c. a marine bony fish

The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is maintained by all of the following except

a. diffusion of salt from the thin segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

b. active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb.

c. the spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons.

d. diffusion of urea from the collecting duct.

e. diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle.

e. diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle.

Natural selection should favor the highest proportion of jux/tamedullary nephrons in which of the following species?

a. a river otter

b. a mouse species living in a tropical rain forest

c. a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest d. a mouse species living in a desert

e. a beaver

d. a mouse species living in a desert

African lungfish, which are often found in small stagnant pools of fresh water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation?

a. Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.

b. Small stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.

c. The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.

d. Urea forms an insoluble precipitate.

e. Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.

b. Small stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.

94) Which of these is not part of insect immunity?

A) enzyme activation of microbe-killing chemicals

B) activation of natural killer cells

C) phagocytosis by hemocytes

D) production of antimicrobial peptides

E) a protective exoskeleton

B) activation of natural killer cells

95) An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or antibody?

A) the disulfide bridge

B) the heavy-chain constant regions only

C) variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined

D) the light-chain constant regions only

E) the tail

C) variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined

96) Which statement best describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells?

A) B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity.

B) B cells kill pathogens directly; cytotoxic T cells kill host cells.

C) B cells secrete antibodies against a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells.

D) B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response.

E) B cells respond the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times.

C) B cells secrete antibodies against a pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells.

97) Which of the following statements is not true?

A) An antibody has more than one antigen-binding site.

B) An antigen can have different epitopes.

C) A pathogen makes more than one antigen.

D) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens.

E) A liver cell makes one class of MHC molecule.

D) A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens.

98) Which of the following should be the same in identical twins?

A) the set of antibodies produced

B) the set of MHC molecules produced

C) the set of T cell antigen receptors produced

D) the susceptibility to a particular virus

E) the set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive

B) the set of MHC molecules produced

99) Vaccination increases the number of

A) different receptors that recognize a pathogen.

B) lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen.

C) epitopes that the immune system can recognize.

D) macrophages specific for a pathogen.

E) MHC molecules that can present an antigen.

B) lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen.

100) Which of the following would not help a virus avoid triggering an adaptive immune response?

A) having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins

B) infecting cells that produce very few MHC molecules

C) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses

D) infecting and killing helper T cells

E) building the viral shell from host proteins

C) producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses

1. Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply?

a. vertebrate lungs

b. fish gills

c. tracheal systems of insects

d. the outer skin of an earthworm

e. the parapodia of a polychaete worm

c. tracheal systems of insects

2. Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the

a. vena cava

b. left atrium

c. right atrium

d. left ventricle

e. right ventricle

b. left atrium

3. Pulse is a direct measure of

a. blood pressure

b. stroke volume

c. cardiac output

d. heart rate

e. breathing rate

d. heart rate

If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe

is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the

following except

(A) the pulmonary vein.

(B) the trachea.

(C) the right atrium.

(D) the right ventricle

(A) the pulmonary vein.

7. When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes first leads to the urge to breathe?

a. rising O2

b. falling O2

c. rising CO2

d. falling CO2

e. rising CO2 and falling O2

c. rising CO2

9. Compared to the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these cells in arteries has a

a. higher Po2

b. higher PCo2

c. greater bicarbonate concentration

d. lower pH

e. lower osmotic pressure

a. higher Po2

One feature that amphibians and humans have in common is

(A) the number of heart chambers.

(B) a complete separation of circuits for circulation.

(C) the number of circuits for circulation.

(D) a low blood pressure in the systemic circuit.

(C) the number of circuits for circulation.

Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol. Protein digestion yields amino acids. Both digestive processes...

(A) Occur inside cells in most animals

(B) Add a water molecule to break bonds.

(C) Require a low pH resulting from HCI production.

(D) Consume ATP.

(B) Add a water molecule to break bonds (Hydrolysis)

The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the...

(A) Pharynx

(B) Stomach

(C) Large intestine

(D) Rectum

(A) Pharynx

Which of the following organs is incorrectly paired with its function?

(A) Stomach - Protein Digestion

(B) Large Intestine - Bile Production

(C) Small Intestine - Nutrient Absorption

(D) Pancreas - Enzyme Production

(B) Large Intestine - Bile Production

Which of the following is not a major activity of the stomach?

(A) Storage

(B) HCI Production

(C) Nutrient Absorption

(D) Enzyme Secretion

(C) Nutrient Absorption

After surgical removal of the gallbladder, a person might need to limit his or her dietary intake of?

(A) Starch

(B) Protein

(C) Sugar

(D) Fat

(D) Fat

If you were to jog 1 km a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably tap?

(A) Muscle proteins

(B) muscle and liver glycogen

(C) Fat in the liver

(D) fat in adipose tissue

(B) Muscle and Liver Glycogen

1) Wakefulness is regulated by the reticular formation, which is present in the

A) basal nuclei.

B) cerebral cortex.

C) brainstem.

D) limbic system.

E) spinal cord.

C) brainstem.

2) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

A) limbic system motor control of speech

B) medulla oblongata homeostatic control

C) cerebellum coordination of movement and balance

D) corpus callosum communication between the left and right cerebral cortices

E) hypothalamus regulation of temperature, hunger, and thirst

A) limbic system motor control of speech

6) The cerebral cortex plays a major role in all of the following except

A) short-term memory.

B) long-term memory.

C) circadian rhythm.

D) foot-tapping rhythm.

E) breath holding.

C) circadian rhythm.

4) Patients with damage to Wernickeʹs area have difficulty

A) coordinating limb movement.

B) generating speech.

C) recognizing faces.

D) understanding language.

E) experiencing emotion.

D) understanding language.

Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt

(A) short-term memory.

(B) coordination during locomotion.

(C) executive functions, such as decision making.

(D) regulation of body temperature.

(D) regulation of body temperature.

After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere

in front of him but pays attention only to objects in his right

field of vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has

difficulty judging their size and distance. What part of the

brain was likely damaged by the stroke?

(A) the left frontal lobe

(B) the right frontal lobe

(C) the right parietal lobe

(D) the corpus callosum

(C) the right parietal lobe

What happens when a resting neuron's membrane depolarizes?

a. There is a net diffusion of Na out of the cell.

b. The equilibrium potential for K (EK) becomes more positive.

c. The neuron's membrane voltage becomes more positive.

d. The neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.

e. The cell's inside is more negative than the outside.

c. The neuron's membrane voltage becomes more positive.

Where are neurotransmitter receptors located?

a. the nuclear membrane

b. the nodes of Ranvier

c. the postsynaptic membrane

d. synaptic vesicle membranes e. the myelin sheath

c. the postsynaptic membrane

A common feature of action potentials is that they

a. cause the membrane to hyperpolarize and then depolarize.

b. can undergo temporal and spatial summation.

c. are triggered by a depolarization that reaches the threshold.

d. move at the same speed along all axons.

e. require the diffusion of Na and K through ligand-gated channels to propagate.

c. are triggered by a depolarization that reaches the threshold.

. Suppose a particular neurotransmitter causes an IPSP in

postsynaptic cell X and an EPSP in postsynaptic cell Y. A likely

explanation is that

(A) the threshold value in the postsynaptic membrane is

different for cell X and cell Y.

(B) the axon of cell X is myelinated, but that of cell Y is not.

(C) only cell Y produces an enzyme that terminates the

activity of the neurotransmitter.

(D) cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter.

(D) cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter.

Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?

a. The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction.

b. The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage gated Na channels.

c. The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than

the terminals of the axon.

d. Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.

e. Voltage-gated channels for both Na and K open in only one direction

b. The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage gated Na channels.

6. Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?

a. Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.

b. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the membrane.

c. The postsynaptic cell produces an action potential.

d. Ligand-gated channels open, allowing neurotransmitters to enter the synaptic cleft.

e. An EPSP or IPSP is generated in the postsynaptic cell.

a. Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.

Which of the following is not an accurate statement?

a. Hormones are chemical messengers that travel to target cells through the circulatory system

b. Hormones often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions

c. Hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same function

d. Hormones are secreted by specialized cells usually located in endocrine glands

e. Hormones are often regulated through feedback loops?

c. Hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same function

The hypothalamus

(A) synthesizes all of the hormones produced by the pituitary gland.

(B) influences the function of only one lobe of the pituitary

gland.

(C) produces only inhibitory hormones.

(D) regulates both reproduction and body temperature.

(A) synthesizes all of the hormones produced by the pituitary gland.

Growth factors are local regulators that

a. are produced by the anterior pituitary

b. are modified fatty acids that stimulate bone and cartilage growth

c. are found on the surface of cancer cells and stimulate abnormal cell division

d. are proteins that bind to cell surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target cells

e. convey messages between nerve cells

d. are proteins that bind to cell surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target cells

Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with its action?

a. oxytocin stimulate uterine contractions during childbirth

b. thyroxine stimulates metabolic processes

c. insulin stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver

d. ACTH stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex

e. melatonin affects biologyical rhythms, seasonal reproduction

c. insulin stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose iodine level is normal?

a. a disproportionate production of T3 to T4

b. a hyposecretion of TSH

c. a hypersecretion of TSH

d. a hypersecretion of MSH

e. a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin

b. a hyposecretion of TSH

The relationship between the insect hormones ecdysone and brain hormone

a. is an example of the interaction between the endocrine and nervous systems

b. illustrates homeostasis achieved by positive feedback

c. demonstrates that peptide derived hormones have more widespread effects than steroid hormones

d. illustrates homeostasis maintained by antagonistic hormones

e. demonstrates competitive inhibition for the hormone receptor

a. is an example of the interaction between the endocrine and nervous systems

Fossilized stromatolites

A. formed around deep-sea vents

B. Resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some shallow marine bays

C. provide evidence that plants moved onto land in the company of fungi around 500 million years ago.

D. contain the first undisputed fossils of eukaryotes and date from 1.8 billion years ago.

B. Resemble structures formed by bacterial communities that are found today in some shallow marine bays

Steroid and peptide hormones typically have in common

(A) the building blocks from which they are synthesized.

(B) their solubility in cell membranes.

(C) their requirement for travel through the bloodstream.

(D) the location of their receptors.

(C) their requirement for travel through the bloodstream.

Shortly after ingesting a big plate of carbohydrate-rich pasta,

you measure your blood's hormone levels. What results would

you expect, compared to before the meal?

(A) high insulin, low glucagon

(B) low insulin, low glucagon

(C) high insulin, high glucagon

(D) low insulin, high glucagon

(A) high insulin, low glucagon

The oxygen revolution changed Earth's environment dramatically. Which of the following took advantage of the presence of free oxygen in the oceans and atmosphere?

A. the evolution of cellular respiration, which used oxygen to help harvest energy from organic molecules

B. the persistence of some animal groups in anaerobic habitats

C. the evolution of photosynthetic pigments that protected early algae from the corrosive effects of oxygen

D. the evolution of chloroplasts after early protists incorporated photosynthetic cyanobacteria

A. the evolution of cellular respiration, which used oxygen to help harvest energy from organic molecules

Which factor most likely caused animals and plants in India to differ greatly from species in nearby southeast Asia?

A. the species became separated by convergent evolution

B. The climates of the two regions are similar.

C. India is in the process of separating from the rest of Asia

D. India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago.

D. India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago.

Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of three of the following four factors. Select the exception.

A. vacant ecological niches

B. Genetic drift

C. Colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habit and few competitor species

D. Evolutionary innovation

B. Genetic drift

Which of the following steps has not yet been accomplished by scientists studying the origin of life?

A. synthesis of small RNA polymers by ribozymes

B. formation of molecular aggregates with selectively permeable membranes

C. formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids

D. abiotic synthesis of organic molecules

C. formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids

A genetic change that caused a certain Hox gene to be expressed along the tip of a vertebrate limb bud instead of farther back helped make possible the evolution of the tetrapod limb. This type of change is illustrative of

A. the influence of environment on development

B. Paedomorphosis

C. A change in a developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organization of body parts.

D. Heterochrony

C. A change in a developmental gene or in its regulation that altered the spatial organization of body parts.

A swim bladder is a gas-filled sac that helps fish maintain buoyancy. The evolution of the swim bladder from the air-breathing organ (a simple lung) of an ancestral fish is an example of

A. exaptation

B. changes in Hox gene expression

C. paedomorphosis

D. adaptive radiation

A. exaptation