RxPrep Infectious Diseases II - Bacterial Infections

0.0(0)
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/287

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

288 Terms

1
New cards

skin flora:

staphylococci, streptococci

What 2 organisms commonly cause infection at surgical incision sites?

2
New cards

IV

What antibiotic route of administration is commonly used for surgical prophylaxis?

3
New cards

60 minutes

Pre-operative antibiotics, such as cefazolin or cefuroxime, should be infused within ________ before first incision.

4
New cards

120 minutes

If a quinolone or vancomycin is used for pre-operative prophylaxis, the infusion should start ________ before first incision.

5
New cards

major blood loss, surgery >4 hours

In what 2 situations would a patient receive intra-operative antibiotics?

6
New cards

24 hours

Post-operative antibiotics are not usually needed but should be discontinued within ________ if used.

7
New cards

cefazolin

What antibiotic is preferred for most types of surgery prophylaxis to prevent MSSA and streptococcal infections?

8
New cards

clindamycin, vancomycin

What 2 antibiotics are alternatives to cefazolin for most types of surgery prophylaxis in patients with a beta-lactam allergy?

9
New cards

GI

In ________ surgeries, the prophylactic antibiotic regimen needs to cover skin flora plus broad gram-negative and anaerobic organisms.

10
New cards

vancomycin

What antibiotic should be included in the surgery prophylaxis regimen if MRSA colonization or risk is present?

11
New cards

cefazolin

What antibiotic is recommended for cardiac or vascular surgery prophylaxis?

12
New cards

cefazolin

What antibiotic is recommended for orthopedic surgery prophylaxis?

13
New cards

- cefazolin + metronidazole, cefotetan, cefoxitin

- ampicillin/sulbactam

What are options for GI surgery prophylaxis?

14
New cards

meningitis

Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), and altered mental status are symptoms of ________.

15
New cards

lumbar puncture

What procedure is used to diagnose meningitis?

16
New cards

CSF

What is analyzed to diagnose meningitis?

17
New cards

high

A (high/low) CSF pressure detected during the lumbar puncture is a sign of possible infection.

18
New cards

Neisseria meningitidis,

Streptococcus pneumoniae

h. influenzae

What are 3 common bacterial causes of meningitis?

19
New cards

>50 YO, immunocompromised, neonates

In what 3 patient populations is meningitis caused by Listeria monocytogenes most common?

20
New cards

dexamethasone

________, administered 15-20 minutes prior to or with the first antibiotic dose, can prevent neurological complications and death from pneumococcal meningitis.

21
New cards

IV

What route of administration is used for dexamethasone in acute bacterial meningitis?

22
New cards

- cover for strep pneumo or n. menigitidis (most will have this)

- add listeria coverage for neonate, >50yo, immuno

- add vanc for ≥1mo for double s.pneumo coverage

what is general treatment algorithm for meningitis empiric coverage

23
New cards

ampicillin (listeria coverage)

+ cefotaxime (not ceftriaxone!) - covers HNPEK and strep

or gentamicin (if beta lactam allergy)

What is the empiric therapy regimen for meningitis in neonates (<1 month old)?

24
New cards

cefotaxime or ceftriaxone

+ vancomycin

What is the empiric therapy regimen for meningitis in patients:

1 month-50 years old?

25
New cards

ampicillin

+ cefotaxime or ceftriaxone

+ vancomycin

What is the empiric therapy regimen for meningitis in patients:

>50 years old or those immunocompromised?

26
New cards

ceftriaxone

What drug commonly used in meningitis empiric therapy regimens should not be used in neonates due to risk of biliary sludging and kernicterus?

27
New cards

ampicillin

Which of the following is used for Listeria coverage in meningitis empiric therapy regimens?

a) ampicillin

b) cefotaxime

c) ceftriaxone

d) gentamicin

e) vancomycin

28
New cards

Bactrim

What drug is an alternative to ampicillin for Listeria coverage in meningitis empiric therapy for an adult when a patient has a beta-lactam allergy?

29
New cards

quinolone (moxi) + vancomycin

What is the meningitis empiric therapy regimen used in adult patients with a beta-lactam allergy?

30
New cards

acute otitis media

Bulging tympanic membranes, otorrhea, otalgia, and tugging or rubbing the ears are signs/symptoms of ________.

31
New cards

H.influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, S. pneumoniae

kids "pic" their ears when it is they have ear infection

What 3 bacteria are the most common causes of acute otitis media?

32
New cards

48-72 hours

Observation for ________ is an option for select patients age ≥6 months with non-severe acute otitis media.

33
New cards

Augmentin (90mg/kg/day),

high-dose amoxicillin (90mg/kg/day)

in 2 divided doses

What are 2 first line treatment options for acute otitis media?

34
New cards

least; diarrhea

When treating acute otitis media with Augmentin, the formulation with the (least/most) amount of clavulanate should be used to decrease the risk of ________.

35
New cards

Augmentin ES-600

(amox 600mg/clav 42.9mg)

14:1 ratio of amox to clav

What is the preferred Augmentin strength for treating acute otitis media?

36
New cards

2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin

(ex. cefdinir)

What is an alternative to amoxicillin when treating acute otitis media in a patient with a non-severe penicillin allergy?

37
New cards

no otorrhea, otalgia <48 hours, temp <102.2ºF

What 3 conditions must be met to consider observation in patients >6 months old with acute otitis media?

38
New cards

ceftriaxone IM

What drug and route of administration is used for acute otitis media if symptoms have not improved after treatment for 2-3 days?

39
New cards

Augmentin

What drug is preferred for acute otitis media when a patient has used amoxicillin in the previous 30 days?

40
New cards

<2yo = 10 days (next age group is 2-5: 2*5=10)

2-5yo = 7 days (2+5 = 7)

>6yo = 5-7 days (6 is between 5 & 7)

what is length of treatment for AOM?

41
New cards

S. pyogenes (GAS)

What organism most commonly causes pharyngitis?

42
New cards

H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, S. pneumoniae

same as AOM - pic - people pic their nose with sinusitis

(pic meaning touch)

What 3 organisms most commonly cause acute sinusitis?

43
New cards

influenza

clue is sudden onset of fever and myalgia

Sudden onset fever, chills, fatigue, and myalgia are symptoms of ________.

44
New cards

common cold

Sneezing, runny nose, mild sore throat, and/or cough are symptoms of ________.

45
New cards

pharyngitis (strep throat - s.pyogenes)

Sore throat, fever, swollen lymph nodes, and white patches on the tonsils are symptoms of ________.

46
New cards

acute sinusitis

Nasal congestion, purulent nasal discharge, facial/ear/dental pain, and headache are symptoms of ________.

47
New cards

positive rapid antigen test

What is the criteria for anti-infective treatment of pharyngitis?

48
New cards

≥3 days of severe symptoms,

≥10 days of persistent symptoms

What are 2 criteria for anti-infective treatment of acute sinusitis?

49
New cards

amoxicillin, penicillin

(covers GAS)

What are 2 antibiotic treatment options for pharyngitis?

50
New cards

1. 1st gen or 2nd gen cephalosporin

2. macrolide or clinda

1. what can you use in place of mild pcn allergy for strep throat?

2. for severe pcn allergy?

51
New cards

Augmentin

(same bug as AOM so use the same thing)

What is an antibiotic treatment option for acute sinusitis?

52
New cards

1-3 weeks

A cough lasting ________ is a defining feature of bronchitis.

53
New cards

an upper respiratory tract virus.

bronchitis is usually preceded by _________.

54
New cards

true

True or False:

Chest x-rays are typically normal in patients with bronchitis.

55
New cards

supportive care

What is the preferred treatment for acute bronchitis?

56
New cards

whooping cough

Pertussis is commonly known as ________.

57
New cards

Bordetella pertussis

What organism causes whooping cough?

58
New cards

false (highly contagious)

True or False:

Pertussis is not contagious.

59
New cards

macrolide

What drug class is preferred when treating pertussis?

60
New cards

GOLD guidelines

What are the COPD guidelines called?

61
New cards

increased dyspnea,

increased sputum purulence,

increased sputum volume

What are the 3 cardinal symptoms of a COPD exacerbation?

62
New cards

H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, S. pneumoniae

(pic - touching chest ("pic") when cough)

What 3 organisms commonly cause COPD exacerbations?

63
New cards

- all 3 cardinal sx are present (↑sputum vol, ↑purulence, ↑dyspnea),

- ↑ sputum purulence + 1 additional symptom,

- mechanical ventilation

In what 3 situations are antibiotics indicated to treat a COPD exacerbation?

64
New cards

Augmentin

(also azithro, doxy, respir fq)

What antibiotic is preferred to treat a COPD exacerbation?

65
New cards

pneumonia

Shortness of breath, fever, cough with purulent sputum, rales, and tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) are symptoms of ________.

66
New cards

chest x-ray

What is the gold stand diagnostic test for pneumonia?

67
New cards

consolidations, infiltrates, or opacities

What 3 things on a chest x-ray indicate pneumonia?

68
New cards

CAP

community-acquired pneumonia

a lung infection contracted outside of healthcare facilities and can be bacterial, viral, or fungal

69
New cards

walking pneumonia

When CAP symptoms are mild, it can be termed "________."

70
New cards

H. influenzae, M. pneumoniae, S. pneumoniae

What 3 organisms most commonly cause CAP?

71
New cards

ciprofloxacin

what FQ is not considered a respiratory quinolone because it does not cover S. pneumoniae.

72
New cards

5-7 days

What is the typical duration of treatment for CAP?

73
New cards

alcohol use disorder,

asplenia,

cancer,

diabetes,

heart disease,

liver disease,

lung disease,

renal disease

What are 8 comorbidities that would put someone with CAP in the high-risk category for outpatient treatment?

74
New cards

doxycycline 100mg BID

high-dose amoxicillin (1g PO TID),

macrolide (azithro / clarithro)

X5-7 days

What are 3 outpatient treatment options for non-high-risk patients with CAP?

75
New cards

- beta-lactam + (doxycycline or macrolide),

- respiratory quinolone

What are 2 outpatient treatment options for high-risk patients with CAP?

76
New cards

Augmentin,

cephalosporin (cefuroxime or cefpodoxime)

What are 2 beta-lactam options for high-risk patients being treated outpatient for CAP?

77
New cards

levofloxacin, moxifloxacin

What are the 2 respiratory quinolones?

78
New cards

- beta-lactam + (doxycycline or macrolide),

- respiratory quinolone

(same as high risk outpatient)

What are 2 inpatient treatment options for non-severe CAP?

79
New cards

ampicillin/sulbactam,

3rd gen cephalo -> cefotaxime, ceftriaxone

What 3 beta-lactams are preferred for inpatient treatment of non-severe CAP?

80
New cards

true

True or False:

Quinolone monotherapy should not be used for inpatient treatment of severe CAP.

81
New cards

linezolid, vancomycin

What are 2 options when adding MRSA coverage to inpatient CAP treatment?

82
New cards

cefepime,

meropenem,

piperacillin/tazobactam

(or aminoglycos (tobi), FQ (CDL), or aztreonam, etc)

What are 3 options when adding Pseudomonas coverage to inpatient CAP treatment?

83
New cards

(hospitalization in last 90 days,)

parenteral antibiotic use in last 90 days

MRSA: - known prevalence in hospital >25% or if unknown or positive nasal swab

PsAr: - known prevalence is >10% or >5 days in hospital prior to HAP

In what situations should MRSA and Pseudomonas coverage be added to inpatient treatment of CAP?

84
New cards

>48 hours

HAP has an onset ________ after hospital admission.

85
New cards

>48 hours

VAP occurs ________ after the start of mechanical ventilation.

86
New cards

nosocomial

what are pathogens are common in HAP and VAP.

87
New cards

MRSA; MDR gram-negative rods;

PsAr

The risk for ________ and ________, including ________, is increased in select HAP and VAP cases.

88
New cards

MSSA, Pseudomonas

All patients being treated for HAP/VAP need an antibiotic that covers ________ and ________.

89
New cards

cefepime,

levofloxacin,

piperacillin/tazobactam

What are 3 examples of antibiotics used in HAP/VAP treatment that cover both MSSA and Pseudomonas?

90
New cards

linezolid, vancomycin

One of what 2 drugs should be added to HAP/VAP treatment if there's a risk of MRSA?

91
New cards

IV antibiotic use in last 90 days, MRSA prevalence >20% or unknown, positive MRSA nasal swab, prior MRSA infection

What are 4 risk factors to consider for MRSA when treating HAP/VAP?

92
New cards

MDR gram-negative

When treating HAP/VAP, use 2 antibiotics for Pseudomonas if there's a risk for ________ pathogens.

93
New cards

hospitalized ≥5 days prior to VAP, IV antibiotic use in last 90 days, prevalence of gram-negative resistance >10%

What are 3 MDR gram-negative risk factors to consider when treating HAP/VAP?

94
New cards

false

True or False: Two beta-lactams can be used together to cover Pseudomonas when treating HAP/VAP.

95
New cards

aminoglycosides, aztreonam, beta-lactams, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

What 5 drugs/classes are used to cover Pseudomonas when treating HAP/VAP?

96
New cards

cefepime, ceftazidime, imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem, piperacillin/tazobactm

What 5 beta-lactams are preferred for Pseudomonas coverage when treating HAP/VAP?

97
New cards

tobramycin

What aminoglycoside is typically preferred for Pseudomonas coverage when treating HAP/VAP?

98
New cards

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

What organism causes tuberculosis?

99
New cards

latent

With (active/latent) tuberculosis, the immune system is able to contain the infection and the patient lacks symptoms.

100
New cards

aerosolized droplets

Active pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted by ________ and is highly contagious.