A&P I Chapter 15 Reading

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74 Terms

1
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In glaucoma, damage occurs primarily to the ______.

ganglion cells in the retina

2
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In theory, cataracts could be prevented by invention of a treatment that would ______.

increase diffusion rates within the lenses

3
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Identify the muscle that is controlled by the abducens nerve (CN VI).

B

<p>B</p>
4
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Identify the muscle responsible for depressing the eye and turning it laterally.

A

<p>A</p>
5
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Name the muscle at D.

inferior rectus

<p>inferior rectus</p>
6
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Which layer of the eye is indicated by letter A?

fibrous

<p>fibrous</p>
7
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Identify the choroid.

B

<p>B</p>
8
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Identify the layer that contains both a single-celled pigmented layer and a neural layer.

C

<p>C</p>
9
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Identify the type of neuronal cell that detects bright light and provides high-resolution color vision.

C

<p>C</p>
10
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Identify the type of neuron that would be secreting neurotransmitter in the light.

A and B

<p>A and B</p>
11
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Identify the neuron that is last in the transmission pathway of light information, given the cells shown in this image.

A

<p>A</p>
12
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Which accessory eye structure is NOT correctly matched with its function?

tarsal glands: produce tears

13
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Which structure provides the vascular support for the eye?

the choroid

14
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What structure in the eye creates a visual blind spot?

optic disc

15
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Which of the following is a characteristic of the lens?

The lens focuses light on the retina.

16
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Which structure is NOT matched with its function?

ciliary body: focus the pupil

17
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You want to look up and to your right. Which extrinsic eye muscles would be the most active in each eye?

right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus

18
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Aqueous humor forms during capillary filtration in the __________?

ciliary body

19
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What is the portion of the eye that allows light to pass into the posterior chamber?

iris

20
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Which of the following statements is true?

Contraction of the ciliary muscles is required for hyperopic individuals to clearly see distant objects.

21
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Atropine eye drops are used to temporarily paralyze the accommodation reflex and as a long-lasting pupil dilating agent, or mydriatic. What action causes the dilation effect?

blocked contraction of sphincter pupillae muscle

22
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What term refers to the eye's moving medially to track items close at hand?

convergence

<p>convergence</p>
23
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During close vision, what actions must the eye take to bring an object into focus?

contract the ciliary body

<p>contract the ciliary body</p>
24
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This image best illustrates an eyeball that is __________.

emmetropic

<p>emmetropic</p>
25
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As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision.

True

26
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Choose the correctly paired terms.

nyctalopia: night blindness

27
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In a 30 year old man who has red-green color blindness, light having a wavelength of 530 nm is perceived as being green. This man ______.

perceives that red light has a green color

28
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Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Nyctalopia affects vision in the fovea centralis, resulting in impaired vision.

29
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Which photoreceptors respond to very dim light?

rods

30
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As light hits the retina, the first structure the light encounters is a rod or a cone.

False

31
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If the optic chiasma is destroyed but the rest of the visual pathway to the brain is not damaged, the result would be ______.

loss of peripheral vision on both the far right and far left sides of the visual field

32
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Which part of the visual pathway is responsible for our daily biorhythms?

suprachiasmatic nucleus

33
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Damage to the medial portion of the optic chiasm, cause by a pituitary tumor, would lead to __________.

loss of peripheral vision

34
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During otitis media, large amounts of fluid or pus may accumulate in the tympanic cavity; the fluid is primarily ______.

interstitial fluid

35
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Identify the structure that forms cranial nerve I.

C

<p>C</p>
36
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Which cells in this pathway are ciliated?

D

<p>D</p>
37
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Which of these is NOT found in the olfactory epithelium?

olfactory tracts

<p>olfactory tracts</p>
38
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How are the olfactory receptors activated?

Odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors.

39
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Choose the FALSE statement about the olfactory epithelium.

It is made of simple squamous epithelium.

40
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Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be associated with the development of motion sickness?

having a non-functional vestibular apparatus

41
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Which of these lettered structures serve as the taste cells?

C

<p>C</p>
42
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Name the types of papillae that contain taste buds.

fungiform, foliate, and vallate

<p>fungiform, foliate, and vallate</p>
43
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What is the purpose of the cell at letter B?

to replace gustatory cells that are damaged

<p>to replace gustatory cells that are damaged</p>
44
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Which of the following is the basic taste quality responsible for the amino acid flavor of steak?

umami

45
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Most taste buds are located __________.

on the top surface of the fungiform papillae

46
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Which of the following is NOT a requirement for something to be tasted?

The tastant must contact the basal epithelial cells of the taste buds.

47
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Rubella infection during early pregnancy may cause damage to the embryo's ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

48
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Which region of the ear houses perilymph and endolymph?

C

<p>C</p>
49
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Which letter indicates structures involved in detection of BOTH hearing and equilibrium?

C

<p>C</p>
50
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A middle ear infection (otitis media) would be located in which region?

B

<p>B</p>
51
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Damage to which of these structures can result in sensorineural deafness?

D

<p>D</p>
52
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Otosclerosis, which can result in conduction deafness, affects which of these structures?

A

<p>A</p>
53
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What are the names of the bones at A, in order from left to right?

malleus, incus, stapes

<p>malleus, incus, stapes</p>
54
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What part of the inner ear houses the receptor organ of hearing, the spiral organ (organ of Corti)?

D

<p>D</p>
55
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Which part of the inner ear houses receptors for rotational (angular) movement of the head?

A

<p>A</p>
56
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Name the enlarged swelling at the end of A that is a sensory structure.

ampulla

<p>ampulla</p>
57
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Which middle ear ossicle is attached to, and transmits vibratory motion to, the oval window?

stapes

58
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Which portion of the ear is responsible for sound transduction?

the cochlea

59
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How many ossicles are found in the ear?

three

60
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What type of channel is responsible for the initial changes in the membrane potential of the hair cells, which ultimately determines the cochlear nerve response to sound?

mechanically gated

61
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Name the structure represented by (1).

tympanic membrane

<p>tympanic membrane</p>
62
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Identify the function of (2) in this image.

They conduct sound waves and amplify the vibrations within the middle ear.

<p>They conduct sound waves and amplify the vibrations within the middle ear.</p>
63
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Transduction of lower frequency sound waves occurs at the __________ of the cochlea.

apex

64
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At rest, when no sound is entering the cochlea, the hair cells send no signal.

False

65
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Height of a wave is called the __________.

amplitude

66
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What structure helps us localize sound?

the superior olivary nucleus

67
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Congenital sensorineural deafness most commonly involves damage to ______.

the cochlear hair cells

68
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Which of the following are the receptors for static equilibrium?

hair cells

69
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What does the vestibular apparatus detect?

head position in space

70
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Which of the following correctly matches the equilibrium receptor organs to the type of equilibrium it monitors?

maculae/static equilibrium

71
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Where are equilibrium receptors located?

in the semicircular canals and in the vestibule of the ear

72
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The semicircular canals are adapted to detect static equilibrium.

False

73
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Which of the following is true of receptors for dynamic equilibrium?

The receptors for dynamic equilibrium respond to rotational forces.

74
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Information from balance (equilibrium) receptors is processed in __________.

the brain stem