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What is the G0 phase?
cell is in long-term rest. cells stay here if they don’t need to regularly multiply
What is the G1 phase?
cell grows in preparation for DNA replication
What is the S phase?
DNA synthesis phase
What is the G2 phase?
after the chromosomes have been duplicated the cell continues to grow and prepare the organelles to support 2 new cells
AKA safety gap to ensure everything has been properly duplicated
What is mitosis?
sister chromatids split to provide DNA for both daughter cells
What are the checkpoints that occur in the G1 or G2 phase?
detection of damaged DNA
What is the checkpoint that occurs in the M phase?
detection of improper spindles
What is the checkpoint that occurs in the S phase?
detection of incomplete replication
If any of these defects are detected in the cell cycle, the cell cannot continue through the cycle after the step with the defect. true or false?
true
What is p53?
a tumor suppressor gene that is the most common mutation seen in cancer
How does p53 work?
it works at the checkpoint between the G2/M transition
the levels of this protein increase when DNA damage is detected and it can inhibit progression to mitosis
What happens when there is a mutation with the p53 gene?
when both copies of the gene are dysfunctional, the cell cannot detect DNA damage before progressing through the cell cycle
What is the Rb protein and how does it work?
acts at the G1/S checkpoint and can inhibit progression to DNA synthesis if damage is detected
What are the apoptotic proteins that p53 can activate or enhance the activity of?
Puma, Noxa, Bax, Bak, BIM
the activation of these then leads to cytochrome C release from mitochondria which activates a variety of caspases which eventually execute apoptosis
How do cancer cells suppress the apoptotic response?
upregulating the anti-apoptotic proteins or downregulating the pro-apoptotic proteins
What are some places where things can go wrong and ultimately lead to cancer?
chromosome
telomere
abnormal chromatin remodeling
DNA mutations
What is translocation?
a type of chromosomal abnormality in which a chromosome breaks and a portion of it reattaches to a different chromosome
What is inversion?
a chromosomal mutation in which a chromosome segment is removed, rotated through 180 degrees, and reinserted in the same location
What is internal deletion?
part of a chromosome or sequence of DNA is left out during DNA replication
What are cancer stem cells?
small percentage of cancer cells that have unlimited self-renewal potential
they are thought to be one of the reasons cancer recurs
What is the role of lobules in the breast?
producing milk
What is the role of ducts in the breast?
carry milk from lobules to nipple
What is stage 0 breast cancer?
breast cancer that hasn’t spread through the walls of the ducts or to other nearby tissues
What is ductal carcinoma in situ?
cancer cells are found along the sides of the milk duct within the breast and have not spread through the walls of the ducts and to other nearby tissues
stage 0 breast cancer
What is invasive ductal carcinoma?
the cancer has spread outside the breast duct to surrounding normal tissue
What is lobular carcinoma in situ?
cancer cells in lobule and hasn’t spread to nearby tissue
What are some pearls of lobular carcinoma?
condition rarely becomes invasive cancer
having LCIS in one breast increases the risk of developing breast cancer in either breast
What are the risk factors for breast cancer?
increasing age
personal or family history
radiation therapy to chest
post menopausal obesity
first period before age 12
beginning menopause after age 55
having your first child after age 35
having no children
postmenopausal combined estrogen/progesterone hormone therapy
alcohol
breast density
What is the role of BRCA 1?
helps to initiate HR by triggering end resection
What happens if there is a mutation in the BRCA 1 or 2 gene?
homologous recombination can’t happen and DNA might not get repaired well
What is the most common subtype of breast cancer?
HR positive and HER2 negative
Describe anthracyclines
DNA intercalators that distort the DNA helix which interferes with transcription, replication, and repair
forms a complex with DNA and topoisomerase II which helps remove DNA supercoiling. When anthracyclines form this complex, it leads to a jumbled mess and ultimately apoptosis
What is the MOA of taxanes?
inhibitors of mitosis by promoting microtubule formation by stabilizing the tubule and GDP complex which makes the microtubules more rigid and the mitotic spindle can’t form properly
prevent microtubules from being broken down
What is an example of a taxane?
paclitaxel (Taxol)
What are examples of platinum agents?
cisplatin
carboplatin
oxaliplatin
What is the MOA of platinum agents?
bind to nucleophilic sites on DNA which leads to intrastrand and interstrand cross-linking distorting the DNA double helix and thus preventing replication
What drug classes are used to treat ER+ breast cancer?
SERMs (selective estrogen receptor modulators)
SERDs (selective estrogen receptor degraders)
Why are SERMS selective?
they have distinct effects depending on what tissue they are acting on
How is tamoxifen selective?
it has anti-proliferative effects on breast tissue, but has agonistic effects on the uterus, bone, and heart
What are some examples of SERMs?
raloxifene
tamoxifen
What is the MOA of tamoxifen?
binds estrogen receptor in a similar fashion to estradiol but the additional side chain causes the receptor to be in an antagonist conformation blocking the cofactor’s ability to bind and you don’t get expression of those genes
What is the downside to tamoxifen?
it acts as an agonist on endometrial tissue leading to cell proliferation and increased risk of endometrial cancer
What is the MOA of raloxifene?
acts as an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast, estrogen receptor agonist in the bone, and estrogen receptor antagonist in the uterus
Why is raloxifene preferred over tamoxifen?
it acts as an antagonist in the uterine tissue unlike tamoxifen which acts as an agonist and can cause endometrial cancer
What is an example of a SERD?
fulvestrant
What is the MOA of fulvestrant?
binds to estrogen receptors and causes those receptors to not be able to dimerize and thus can’t translocate to the nucleus and there is no transcription of estrogen sensitive genes
What is the MOA of aromatase inhibitors?
inhibit aromatase which is responsible for converting androstenedione to estrone which is the primary form of estrogen in postmenopausal women. Less estrogen means less signaling to estrogen receptors to replicate
What are the type I aromatase inhibitors?
formestane and exemestane
What are the type II aromatase inhibitors?
anastrozole, letrozole
What is the difference between type I and type II aromatase inhibitors?
type I are steroidal analogues of androstenedione and type II are nonsteroidal
What are examples of aromatase inhibitors?
anastrozole
letrozole
exemestane
Which drug is used for HER2 positive targeted therapies?
trastuzumab
What is trastuzumab?
a humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody that binds to the extracellular domain IV of HER2
What is the MOA of trastuzumab?
binds to extracellular domain IV of HER2 and prevents HER2 from sending growth signals. Blocks dimerization of HER2 receptor with other receptors. Binding to HER2 can also induce antibody-dependent immune cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Which drug is used for hormone positive targeted therapies as CDK4/6 inhibitors?
palbociclib
What type of breast cancer is palbociclib used to treat?
ER positive and HER2 negative
What is palbociclib used in combination with?
letrozole as initial endocrine based therapy in postmenopausal women
fulvestrant in women with disease progression after endocrine based therapy
What is the MOA of palbociclib?
inhibits CDK4 and CDK6 which are signaling molecules that tell the cell to grow and divide
What are examples of CDK4/6 inhibitors?
palbociclib
ribociclib
abemaciclib
What is a description of stage 0 breast cancer?
disease contained to ducts/lobules of breast. noninvasive
What is the goal of treatment for stage 0 breast cancer?
curative
What is a description for stage 1 breast cancer?
disease exists in normal breast tissue. invasive cancer
What is the goal of treatment for stage 1 breast cancer?
curative
What is a description of stage II breast cancer?
disease exists in nearby (up to 3) lymph nodes. invasive cancer.
What is the goal of treatment for stage II breast cancer?
curative
What is a description of stage III breast cancer?
disease exists in 4 or more lymph nodes or manifests in chest wall, breast skin, or other nearby manifestations. invasive cancer.
What is the goal of treatment for stage III breast cancer?
curative
What is a description of stage IV breast cancer?
disease exists in non breast organs, distant lymph nodes. metastatic disease.
What is the goal of treatment for stage IV breast cancer?
prolong life, improve quality of life
What are the 3 different types of breast cancer?
ER/PR+
HER2+
triple negative
What are the unmodifiable risk factors for breast cancer?
gender
age greater than 50
environment
genetics
personal history
family history
lifetime estrogen exposure
first period before age 12
What are the modifiable risk factors for breast cancer?
hormone replacement therapy
alcohol use
late first pregnancy
post menopausal obesity/increased BMI
oral contraceptive use
radiation exposure
What are the 2 common surgeries for breast cancer?
breast conserving
total tissue removal
Describe breast conserving surgeries.
lumpectomy or quadrantectomy
these surgeries look to excise just the tumor, leaving the majority of the breast tissue
Describe total tissue removal.
mastectomy
the entirety of the breast tissue is removed and is often recommended for preventative reasons
What are the 2 types of radiation?
external beam and internal
Describe external beam radiation.
a beam of photons that is dosed every day over several weeks
Describe internal radiation.
radiation is introduced into the body either surgically or through consumption
What are the side effects of radiation?
fatigue
hair loss
skill reactions
shortness of breath
What are the pearls of anthracyclines?
they are vesicants meaning they can cause blistering and destruction of tissue at infusion site
discolors a patient’s urine turning it red
UNIQUE side effects of heart toxicity and hepatotoxicity
What are the pearls of alkylating agents such as cyclophosphamide?
must be co-administered with hydration and mesna to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis
UNIQUE side effects of hemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression
What are the pearls of taxanes?
must be co-administered with diphenhydramine, steroids, and H2RAs due to high risk of anaphylaxis
must be given before platinum agents if administered
UNIQUE side effects of peripheral neuropathy, myalgia, arthralgia, hepatotoxicity
What are the pearls of platinum agents?
causes the most severe nausea and vomiting of any class
UNIQUE side effects of peripheral neuropathy, neuropathy, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
Why are hormone therapeutics best used in post-menopausal women?
these drugs actively compete against hormone production in the ovaries and there is less estrogen produced in the ovaries after menopause
Why are SERDs usually reserved for later stage cancers?
because it blocks all activity of estrogen in the body not just in the breast
What are the drug classes used to treat nausea and vomiting associated with cancer therapy?
5-HT3 receptor blockers
NK-1 receptor blockers
corticosteroids
dopamine antagonists
What are the 5-HT3 receptor blockers?
ondansetron, palonosetron
What are the NK-1 receptor blockers?
fosnetupitant, aprepitant
What is a corticosteroid used to treat nausea and vomiting?
dexamethasone
What is a dopamine antagonist used for nausea and vomiting?
prochlorperazine
What medications are used to treat diarrhea?
imodium (loperamide)- OTC
lomotil (diphenoxylate/atropine)- prescription
What are some medications used to treat constipation?
senna, polyethylene glycol, methylnaltrexone, lubiprostone
Which constipation medications are OTC?
senna and polyethylene glycol
Which constipation medications are used to treat opioid-induced constipation?
methylnaltrexone and lubiprostone
What are some prevention things patients can do for mucositis?
oral hygiene
caphosol
cryotherapy
mucosal protectants
What are some things to treat mucositis?
topical pain relievers
magic mouthwash
corticosteroids
ice-chips
What can be used to treat alopecia?
cold cap
What is considered a normal neutrophil count?
greater than 1500 cells/uL
What are the preventative treatment medications for neutropenia?
neupogen (filgrastim)
neulasta (pegfilgrastim)
work by stimulating production of neutrophils
What are some symptoms of hot flashes?
rapid or irregular heart beat
sleep disturbances
flushing or reddened face and neck
perspiration
cold chills