Chapter 26: Quiz - 6th Edition: Neurosurgery

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66 Terms

1
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How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

twelve

2
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Fiducials placed on bony landmarks are used in which of the following types of neurosurgical procedures?

stereotactic guided-imagery biopsy

3
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Posterior fossa craniectomy is performed for pathology involving the:

cerebellum.

4
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The circle of Willis is a:

network of connected arteries at the base of the brain.

5
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Which of the following diagnostic studies demonstrates a herniated disc causing spinal compression and radiographic filling defect?

myelogram

6
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Which of the following parts of the vertebra projects most posteriorly and is often palpable through the skin in the convex areas of the spine?

spinous process

7
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Which of the following anatomical structures is the soft, gelatinous part of the intervertebral disc that is sent as specimen after diskectomy?

nucleus pulposus

8
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Osteophytes are:

bony spurs

9
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Which of the following conditions is a result of torn bridging veins between the cerebral cortex and venous sinuses?

subdural hematoma

10
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Which of the following anatomical areas is the lowest part of the brain stem and contiguous with the spinal cord?

medulla oblongata

11
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Which of the following conditions is described as a congenital defect when arteries and veins connect causing blood to divert away from surrounding brain tissue?

arteriovenous malformation

12
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The term for a deep groove in the cerebrum that separates the brain into lobes is the:

fissure.

13
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The name of the dural fold that separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum is the:

falx cerebri.

14
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Which of the following procedures treats vertebral compression fractures using trocars and PMMA ?

kyphoplasty

15
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Which of the following terms describes a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain?

meningioma

16
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The Wilson frame is used when positioning for which of the following procedures?

lumbar laminectomy

17
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Which of the following portions of the normal spinal column has five vertebrae?

lumbar

18
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Which of the following instruments is used to extract pieces of the nucleus pulposus in a diskectomy?

pituitary rongeur

19
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Which of the following positions is usually used for microdecompression endoscopic diskectomy?

lateral

20
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In which of the following procedures are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?

anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion

21
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From which of the following areas is an autologous bone graft usually procured for anterior cervical fusion
procedures?

iliac crest

22
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During an endoscopic carpal tunnel release, which of the following knives is used to cut the transverse carpal
ligament?

hook

23
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Which of the following parts of the body is prepped for ulnar nerve decompression or transposition?

upper extremity

24
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Carpal tunnel syndrome is treated by:

incising the transverse carpal ligament to decompress the nerve.

25
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The visual cortex of the brain is located in which of the following regions?

occipital

26
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Which of the following conditions results most often from a fractured skull or blow to the head?

epidural hematoma

27
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Which of the following layered structures has the closest and most intimate contact with the brain?

pia

28
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The name of the convolutions of the brain that fold out instead of in is:

gyri

29
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Which of the following neurosurgical retractors has attachments for malleable brain spatulas and retractors?

Leyla-Yasargil

30
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When incising the cranium between burr holes, which of the following attachments to the powered craniotome is necessary to prevent injury of underlying tissues?

dural guard with footplate

31
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Electrocautery and which of the following instruments can be used to strip and separate the galea and pericranium from the skull before placement of burr holes?

Langenbeck periosteal elevator

32
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Papaverine is used in craniotomy for aneurysm clipping to prevent:

vasospasm.

33
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Most intracranial aneurysms occur in:

arterial bifurcations.

34
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The name of the group of spinal nerves that continue from the distal spinal cord at about L-2 in the average adult is:

cauda equina.

35
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Which of the following conditions can be described as forward displacement of the upper vertebral body onto the lower vertebral body?

spondylolisthesis

36
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Which of the following retractors would be used in conjunction with a sterile Kerlix roll for suspension?

Taylor

37
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Which of the following facial sinuses is used for surgical approach to a pituitary adenoma rather than traditional
craniotomy?

sphenoid

38
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Which of the following techniques is used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors,
spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?

Cloward

39
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During which of the following procedures would you use a discotome?

microdecompression endoscopic spinal discectomy

40
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Which of the following anatomical structures is the tough outer layer that encases the intervertebral disc material?

annulus fibrosis

41
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Which of the following approaches is primarily used for treatment of a herniated cervical disc followed by an intervertebral fusion?

anterior medial

42
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How many vertebrae are there in the normal adult spine?

thirty-three

43
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Special attention must be taken during application and removal of the Mayfield cranial fixation device due to the removal of the OR table head piece.

True

44
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The surgical technologist may have up to three separate setups in a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure: nasal access, tumor excision, and fascial graft.

True

45
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Herniated nucleus pulposus is a congenital disorder that must be treated surgically in the neonate to prevent
quadriplegia

False

46
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The skull flap can be reattached to the cranium by small titanium plates and screws or with stainless steel wire.

True

47
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The foramen of Monro connects the large ventricles to the small ventricles.

True

48
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The instrument called a Kerrison is a(n):

rongeur

49
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Which of the following surgical procedures treats compression of the median nerve by a transverse ligament?

carpal tunnel release

50
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Which of the following portions of the spinal column consists of five fused vertebrae in the average adult?

sacrum

51
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Another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1) is:

atlas

52
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The name of the structure in which the pituitary gland is located is:

sella turcica

53
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The name of the structure that produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is:

choroid plexus.

54
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Monro, Sylvius, Magendie, and Luschka are:

aqueducts and foramina.

55
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Which of the following instruments could be used for burr-hole cranial perforation if no powered equipment is available?

Hudson brace

56
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Which of the following instruments is used for scalp hemostasis and retraction and resembles a Crile or Kelly
hemostat, except the curve is to the side?

Dandy

57
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The distal-most area of the spinal column is called the:

coccyx

58
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Penfield #1 through #5 are:

disecctors

59
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For which of the following surgical procedures would petroleum gauze nasal packing be used as part of the dressing?

transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

60
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Into which of the following anatomical structures or areas is the distal catheter most often inserted in a V-P shunt procedure?

peritoneal cavity

61
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The name of the horseshoe or pin fixation device for neurosurgical cranial positioning is the:

Mayfield

62
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The anatomical area where cerebrospinal fluid circulates over all parts of the central nervous system is the:

subarachnoid space.

63
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The largest part of the human brain is the:

cerebrum

64
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Which of the following instruments are countable surgical sponges used in neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate tissues?

Cottonoid patties

65
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Which of the following procedures is a radiographic diagnostic procedure performed for suspected aneurysm near the circle of Willis?

cerebral angiogram

66
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Craniosynostosis is a congenital defect involving:

premature cranial suture closure.