Characteristics of Microorganisms (Weeks 2-4)

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Last updated 10:13 PM on 3/6/25
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81 Terms

1
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Q: What does bacterial morphology refer to?

A: Cell shape and arrangement determined by the cell wall.

2
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Q: What is a rod-shaped bacterium called?

A: Bacillus (plural: bacilli).

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Q: What is a spherical or round bacterium called?

A: Coccus (plural: cocci).

4
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Q: What is a curved rod-shaped bacterium called?

A: Vibrio (plural: vibrios).

5
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Q: What is a rigid wave-shaped bacterium called?

A: Spirillum (plural: spirilla).

6
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Q: What is a flexible wave-shaped bacterium called?

A: Spirochete (plural: spirochetes).

7
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Q: What is a pair of cocci called?

A: Diplococcus.

8
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Q: What is a chain of cocci called?

A: Streptococcus.

9
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Q: What is a grape-like cluster of cocci called?

A: Staphylococcus.

10
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Q: What are the three major staining techniques used to visualize bacteria?

A: Simple stain, Gram stain, and Acid-fast stain.

11
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Q: What does a simple stain do?

A: Stains all bacteria the same color.

12
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Q: What is the most common dye used in a simple stain?

A: Crystal violet.

13
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Q: What does a Gram stain differentiate?

A: The type of cell wall.

14
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Q: What color do Gram-positive bacteria appear after a Gram stain?

A: Purple.

15
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Q: What colour do Gram-negative bacteria appear after a Gram stain?

A: Red.

16
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Q: What is iodine used for in a Gram stain?

A: It acts as a mordant, causing crystal violet to stick to the bacteria.

17
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Q: What is safranin used for in a Gram stain?

A: It is a red stain that colors Gram-negative bacteria.

18
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Q: What is the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in terms of cell wall thickness?

A: Gram-positive bacteria have a thick cell wall, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thin cell wall.

19
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Q: What is the acid-fast stain used for?

A: Identifying mycobacteria, such as those causing tuberculosis.

20
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Q: How is the acid-fast stain different from the Gram stain?

A: The red stain is used first, and acid/alcohol is used to wash the first stain.

21
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Q: What color do mycobacteria appear after an acid-fast stain?

A: Red, indicating a waxy cell wall.

22
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Q: What is the role of ribosomes in bacteria?

A: They make proteins, and some antibiotics attack them.

23
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Q: What is the glycocalyx composed of?

A: A sticky layer of polysaccharides and small proteins.

24
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Q: What are the roles of the glycocalyx?

A: Protection, adhesion, and water balance.

25
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Q: Which types of bacteria commonly have a glycocalyx?

A: Many rod-shaped and spherical bacteria, not spiral.

26
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Q: Give an example of a bacterium with a glycocalyx and its associated disease.

A: Haemophilus influenzae, which causes meningitis.

27
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Q: What is a thick and tightly bound glycocalyx called?

A: A capsule.

28
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Q: What is a thin and flowing glycocalyx called?

A: A slime layer.

29
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Q: Give an example of a bacterium with a slime layer and its associated infections.

A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which causes urinary and lung infections.

30
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Q: What is a biofilm?

A: Colonies of glycocalyx-covered bacteria that form a film.

31
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Q: What is the bacterial cell wall responsible for?

A: Cell shape and protection against osmotic pressure changes.

32
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Q: What are the main components of a Gram-positive bacterial cell wall?

A: Peptidoglycan (protein and carbohydrate) and teichoic acid.

33
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Q: What is teichoic acid and its role in Gram-positive bacteria?

A: A component made of phosphate and alcohol with a high negative charge, acting as an antigen.

34
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Q: What are the main components of a Gram-negative bacterial cell wall?

A: Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), endotoxin, and a periplasmic region.

35
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Q: What makes Gram-negative bacteria more difficult to kill?

A: Their multiple layers, including an outer membrane and a thin peptidoglycan layer.

36
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Q: What are the key differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

A: Thicker peptidoglycan, no outer membrane, and teichoic acid in Gram-positive; thinner peptidoglycan, outer membrane, and LPS in Gram-negative.

37
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Q: What are the cytoplasmic contents of bacteria?

A: Ribosomes, inclusion bodies, a single chromosome, and plasmids.

38
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Q: What are plasmids, and what is their significance?

A: Small circular pieces of bacterial DNA that can carry genes for antibiotic resistance, acting as 'emergency' genetic material.

39
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Q: What are bacterial endospores, and when are they formed?

A: Dormant and resistant stages of specific bacterial cells formed when moisture or nutrient supply is low.

40
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Q: What are some diseases caused by spore-forming bacteria?

A: Anthrax, tetanus, gas gangrene, botulism, and C. difficile.

41
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Q: What are the two main types of bacterial appendages?

A: Flagella and pili.

42
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Q: What is the function of flagella in bacteria?

A: The function of flagella in bacteria is to allow bacteria to move (motility).

43
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Q: What are flagella made of?

A: Flagella are made of rigid protein subunits called flagellin.

44
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Q: How do bacteria move by ‘chemotaxis’?

A: Bacteria move by ‘chemotaxis’ by moving towards favorable conditions and away from unfavorable conditions.

45
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Q: How do bacteria behave in unfavorable vs. favorable conditions?

A: In unfavorable conditions, bacteria have long tumbles and short runs; in favorable conditions, they have short tumbles and long runs.

46
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Q: What happens when bacteria move clockwise versus counterclockwise?

A: When bacteria move clockwise, they tumble; when they move counterclockwise, they run.

47
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Q: What are pili and what are they made of?

A: Pili are short, hair-like appendages made of a protein called pilin.

48
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Q: What functions do pili perform in bacteria?

A: Pili help bacteria attach to other bacteria and surfaces, and transfer genetic material to another bacterial cell.

49
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Q: What is the function of 'fimbriae'?

A: Fimbriae are sticky pili that help bacteria attach to surfaces or other cells.

50
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Q: What is the process of conjugation in bacteria?

A: Conjugation is the process by which sex pili transfer DNA from one bacterium to another, specifically plasmids.

51
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Q: How might superbugs have evolved in relation to pili?

A: Superbugs may have evolved due to bacteria sharing genetic information through pili, which allowed them to adapt and develop resistance.

52
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Q: What is binary fission in bacteria?

A: Binary fission is a process where bacteria split apart, resulting in exponential growth (e.g., 2 to 4 to 8, etc.).

53
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Q: How does bacterial reproduction differ from mitosis?

A: Bacterial reproduction through binary fission is a less complex process than mitosis.

54
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Q: How fast do bacteria typically reproduce?

A: Bacteria generally reproduce at a rapid rate, typically between 20 minutes to 30 hours.

55
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Q: What is the generation (doubling) time for bacteria?

A: The generation (doubling) time is the time, in minutes, for a population of bacteria to double.

56
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Q: Describe the stages of the bacterial growth curve.

A: The bacterial growth curve consists of the lag phase (small growth), exponential/logarithmic phase (population explodes), stationary phase (growth stabilizes), and death phase (decline in population).

57
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Q: What happens during the lag phase of bacterial growth?

A: During the lag phase, there is a small number of bacteria growing and not much dying.

58
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Q: What is exponential or logarithmic growth in bacteria?

A: Exponential or logarithmic growth is when the bacterial population increases rapidly, such as from 1 E. coli to 1 billion in 10 hours under ideal conditions.

59
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Q: What temperature range is optimal for pathogen growth?

A: Pathogens grow best between 35℃ to 42℃.

60
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Q: What is the optimal pH range for bacterial growth?

A: Bacteria usually grow best between a pH of 7.0 to 7.5.

61
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Q: At what temperatures do psychrophiles, mesophiles, and thermophiles grow?

A: Psychrophiles grow at 0 - 20℃, mesophiles grow at 20-40℃, and thermophiles grow at 40 - 90℃.

62
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Q: Why does body temperature increase during bacterial infections?

A: Body temperature goes up to slow the growth of bacterial infections.

63
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Q: What are aerobes and anaerobes in bacteria?

A: Aerobes are bacteria that breathe oxygen, while anaerobes are bacteria that do not breathe oxygen.

64
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Q: Why is oxygen both beneficial and harmful to bacteria?

A: Oxygen is an excellent energy-converting molecule but generates toxic oxygen-free radicals. Aerobic bacteria must break down free radicals or die.

65
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Q: What is the difference between obligate aerobes and obligate anaerobes?

A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for life (e.g., Tuberculosis), while obligate anaerobes cannot grow in oxygen and will die if exposed (e.g., Tetanus).

66
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Q: What are facultative anaerobes/aerobes?

A: Facultative anaerobes/aerobes can live with or without oxygen (e.g., E. coli).

67
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Q: What are microaerophiles?

A: Microaerophiles require a small amount of oxygen, but too much oxygen is toxic to them (e.g., mucus bacteria causing oral/digestive diseases).

68
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Q: What do bacteria need for growth, and what are the different nutritional patterns?

A: Bacteria need water and food. The different nutritional patterns are autotrophs (make their own food), heterotrophs (need food from outside sources), saprobes (eat dead organisms), and parasites (eat live organisms).

69
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Q: What are pathogens, and what do they do?

A: Pathogens are bacteria that cause disease.

70
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Q: How is agar used in bacterial cultivation?

A: Agar, a polysaccharide from marine red algae, provides a semi-solid surface for bacterial growth. Agar powder is added to nutrients, heated to dissolve, and poured to solidify below 36℃.

71
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Q: What is complex media, and what does it include?

A: Complex media includes beef extract, peptone, and sodium chloride. It allows most bacteria to grow well (0.5% sodium chloride).

72
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Q: What is selective media, and give an example?

A: Selective media selects the environment it wants to grow in. Example: high salt agar (7.5% instead of 0.5%), which Staphylococci grow well in.

73
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Q: What is differential media, and give an example?

A: Differential media allows many bacteria to grow but they grow differently in different media. Example: blood agar, differentiates between Staphylococcus aureus/epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes.

74
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Q: What is combined selective and differential media, and give an example?

A: Combined selective and differential media includes ingredients for both selecting and differentiating bacteria. Example: Mannitol salt agar with phenol red (pH indicator).

75
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Q: If a wound swab grows bacteria in high salt and the bacteria turn yellow on mannitol salt agar, which bacteria is the patient likely infected with?

A: Staphylococcus aureus. The staphylococccus bacterium grows in high salt and the yellow colour comes from the aureus.

76
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Q: If a wound swab grows bacteria in high salt and the mannitol salt agar remains red, which bacteria is the patient likely infected with?

A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The staphylococccus bacterium grows in high salt and the red colour comes from the epidermidis.

77
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Q: If a sore throat swab grows bacteria on blood agar and the bacterium turns yellow, which bacteria is the patient likely infected with?

A: Streptococcus pyogenes.

78
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Q: How does turbidity measure bacterial cell number?

A: Turbidity measures bacterial cell number by shining light through a beaker. More cells block more light, and cell count is based on light scatter. It does not indicate if the cells are alive.

79
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Q: What is direct microscope count, and what is its limitation?

A: Direct microscope count involves multiplying the counted cells. It does not indicate if the cells are alive.

80
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Q: What is the standard plate method, and what does it determine?

A: The standard plate method determines CFUs (colony-forming units). It involves drawing a line, counting along the line, and multiplying using equations. It indicates if the cells are alive.

81
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Q: What are the streak plate and pour plate methods?

A: The streak plate method spreads bacteria to isolate colonies, while the pour plate method involves mixing bacteria with liquid agar to isolate colonies.