microbio discussion questions

Which of the following types of RNA codes for a protein?

1. dsRNA

2. mRNA

3. rRNA

4. tRNA

mRNA

If a DNA strand contains the sequence 5ʹ-ATTCCGGATCGA-3ʹ, which of the following is the sequence of the complementary strand of DNA?

1. 5ʹ-TAAGGCCTAGCT-3ʹ

2. 5ʹ-ATTCCGGATCGA-3ʹ

3. 3ʹ-TAACCGGTACGT-5ʹ

4. 5ʹ-TCGATCCGGAAT-3ʹ

5ʹ-TCGATCCGGAAT-3ʹ

If 30% of the bases within a DNA molecule are adenine, what is the percentage of thymine?

1. 20%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 35%

30%

Which of the following is not found within DNA?

1. thymine

2. phosphodiester bonds

3. complementary base pairing

4. amino acids

amino acids

Frederick Griffith infected mice with a combination of dead R and live S bacterial strains. What was the outcome, and why did it occur?

1. The mice will live. Transformation was not required.

2. The mice will die. Transformation of genetic material from R to S was required.

3. The mice will live. Transformation of genetic material from S to R was required.

4. The mice will die. Transformation was not required.

The mice will die. Transformation of genetic material from R to S was required.

What part of the male urogenital tract is shared by the urinary and reproductive systems?

1. the prostate gland

2. the seminal vesicles

3. the vas deferens

4. the urethra

the urethra

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by serovars of

1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

2. Chlamydia trachomatis.

3. Treponema pallidum.

4. Haemophilis ducreyi.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

What is the only common infection of the reproductive tract caused by a protozoan?

1. gonorrhea

2. chlamydia

3. trichomoniasis

4. candidiasis

trichomoniasis

Which oral medication is recommended as an initial topical treatment for genital yeast infections?

1. penicillin

2. acyclovir

3. fluconazole

4. miconazole

miconazole

Koilocytes are characteristic of

1. cells infected with human papillomavirus

2. cells infected with herpes simplex virus 2

3. cells infected with all forms of herpesviruses

4. cervical cancer cells

cells infected with human papillomavirus

1. Which is NOT a symptom of Toxic Shock-like Syndrome?

1. High fever

2. Vomiting

3. Hypotension 

4. Cough

1. Cough

2. What is the difference between rotavirus gastroenteritis and norovirus gastroenteritis?

1. There is a vaccine available for norovirus while rotavirus 

2. Rotavirus gastroenteritis commonly affects children and the elderly, while norovirus affects all ages.

3. Norovirus gastroenteritis may lead to death and malnutrition while rotavirus gastroenteritis is self-limiting. 

4. Rotavirus is mainly transmitted through the respiratory droplets, while norovirus is only spread by contaminated food and water.

Rotavirus gastroenteritis commonly affects children and the elderly, while norovirus affects all ages.

3. Which of the following is NOT used to treat Leptospirosis?

1. Amoxicillin 

2. Penicillin

3. Azithromycin 

4. Erythromycin

Erythromycin

4. How can Dipylidium Caninum be transmitted to humans?

a. Drinking unclean water

b. A dog licking a person’s face, causing ingestion of an infected flea

c. Eating undercooked lamb

d. Dipylidium Caninum doesn’t affect humans.

b. A dog licking a person’s face, causing ingestion of an infected flea

5. How does the human body differentiate between a B and T cell? 

a. Mature T cells have antigen receptors that interact with antigen fragments that are bound to MHC molecules, while mature B cells have no antigen receptors on its surface 

b. There is no difference between a B and T cell

c. Mature B cells have antigen receptors that are Y-shaped with two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains while mature T cells have alpha and beta polypeptide chains

d. B cells and T cells both develop in bone marrow and mature in the thyroid glands. 

c. Mature B cells have antigen receptors that are Y-shaped with two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains while mature T cells have alpha and beta polypeptide chains

6. Which immune response eliminates toxins and pathogens in the blood and lymph?

a. Humoral immune response

b. Cell-mediated immune response

c. Secondary immune response

d. Inflammatory response

a. Humoral immune response

7. What is used to diagnose typhoid fever?

a. Serotyping

b. Stomach biopsy

c. Breath test

d. None of the above

a. Serotyping

8. How do you visualize P. aeruginosa?

a. Through a microscopic analysis of a blood smear 

b. Using Wood’s Lamp

c. Culturing the species on XLD agar

d. a and c

b. Using Wood’s Lamp

9. True or False: Sabouraud dextrose CC agar is a medium used to culture Trichophyton rubrum, a strain that commonly causes tineas.

True

10. How does using sodium fluorescein help with diagnosis of Acanthamoeba keratitis?

a. By allowing Acanthamoeba to fluoresce on a culture

b. Sodium fluorescein is not used to diagnose

c. It causes a patient’s eye to fluorescence to visualize damage in the cornea and vascularization of the surrounding conjunctiva

d. Sodium fluorescein is used to diagnose Vibrio cholerae, the causative agent for cholera

c. It causes a patient’s eye to fluorescence to visualize damage in the cornea and vascularization of the surrounding conjunctiva

1. How are prokaryotic cells different from eukaryotic cells?

   1. Prokaryotes have a nucleus and membrane bound organelles, while eukaryotes do not

   2. Prokaryotes have cell walls made of peptidoglycan, while eukaryotes have cell walls made of cellulose or chitin

   3. Prokaryotes have a larger ribosome than eukaryotes

   4. Chromosomes in prokaryotes are usually paired, while eukaryotes have a single circular chromosome

Prokaryotes have cell walls made of peptidoglycan, while eukaryotes have cell walls made of cellulose or chitin

1. Which factor does not affect microbial growth?

   1. Temperature

   2. Oxygen concentration

   3. pH

   4. None of the above

None of the above

1. Which of the following is an example of transduction?

   1. Phage assisted DNA transfer

   2. Attachment of the pilus to recipient cell

   3. A live rough strain of bacteria and heat-killed smooth strain of bacteria result in living strains of both smooth and and rough

   4. High frequency transfer

Phage assisted DNA transfer

1. How does the immune system recognize bacteria and fungi?

   1. Shape

   2. Mode of reproduction

   3. Structures on their cell walls

   4. Cell membranes

Structures on their cell walls

1. Which is a major characteristic of the adaptive immune system?

   1. Self-tolerance

   2. Rapid responses

   3. Barrier defenses

   4. Nonspecific responses to pathogens

Self-tolerance

1. Which happens to transfused blood cells that are incompatible with the recipient?

   1. Transformation of the transfused cells to match the recipients’

   2. The transfused cells are engulfed through phagocytosis

   3. They circulate throughout the body until their death

   4. Destruction of the transfused cells

Destruction of the transfused cells

1. Which of the following is not part of a single neuron?

   1. Axon

   2. Synapse 

   3. Dendrites

   4. Soma

Synapse 

1. Which statement related to mutations is false?

   1. Deletion and insertion are types of mutations

   2. Mutations can be induced in the laboratory

   3. Mutations are an inheritable change in an organism’s genetic information

   4. All genetic mutations are fatal

All genetic mutations are fatal

Which of the following is not a symptom of malaria?

1. Nausea

2. Extreme fever

3. Tissue cysts

4. Chills

Tissue cysts

1. Which is not a type of skin lesion?

   1. Lacrimal sac

   2. Cyst

   3. Papule

   4. Vesicle

Lacrimal sac

Which organelle is absent from prokaryotic cells?

1. Ribosome

2. Cell membrane

3. Nucleus

4. Cytoplasm

1. Nucleus

Which stain is commonly used to differentiate bacterial species based on cell wall structures?

1. Gram stain

2. Negative stain

3. Simple stain

4. Positive stain

Gram stain

What type of microorganism causes malaria?

1. Bacteria

2. Protozoa

3. Virus

4. Fungus

Protozoa

What part of the bacterial cell wall does penicillin target?

1. Plasma membrane

2. Ribosomes

3. Peptidoglycan

4. DNA

Peptidoglycan

Which process is used to kill harmful microbes in food and drinks?

1. Pasteurization

2. Fermentation

3. Dehydration

4. Freezing

Pasteurization

Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

1. Tuberculosis

2. Influenza

3. Strep Throat

4. Ringworm

Influenza

How do antibiotics work?

1. They strengthen the immune system.

2. They kill viruses.

3. They neutralize toxins.

4. They destroy and inhibit bacterial growth.

They destroy and inhibit bacterial growth.

What is the shape of a cocci bacteria?

1. Rod

2. Spiral

3. Spherical

4. Filamentous

Spherical

Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium?

1. Escherichia coli

2. Staphylococcus aureus

3. Salmonella typhi

4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Staphylococcus aureus

What are the structures of the lower respiratory tract?

1. Primary bronchus

2. Trachea

3. Epiglottis

4. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following bacterial structures can help contribute to a bacterium's pathogenicity?

a) Lipopolysaccharide

b) Endospore

c) Glycocalyx

d) All of the above

e) A & B only

d) All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a white blood cell?

a) Natural Killer cells

b) Macrophages

c) B cell and T cell

d) Erythrocytes

d) Erythrocytes

Which of the following is true about blood groups?

a) Type O has no antigens

b) Type AB is the universal donor

c) Type B is only present in boys (B for boys)

d) Type AB+ and Type AB- are relatively the same blood type

a) Type O has no antigens

Acne is caused by

a) Clogged hair follicles from excess sebum and the buildup of dead skin cells

b) Streptococcus Pyogenes

c) Lack of personal hygiene 

d) Stress due to studying for this microbiology final

a) Clogged hair follicles from excess sebum and the buildup of dead skin cells

Which is NOT a type of herpes virus?

a) Varicelle-zoster virus

b) HSV-1 and HSV-2

c) HPV

d) Cold sores

c) HPV

Which of the following is true about tetanus?

a) There is no vaccine for this infection

b) It is caused by Streptococcus Tetani

c) It is also known as lockjaw

d) It is very contagious and transmissible through direct contact

c) It is also known as lockjaw

Which protozoan causes American sleeping sickness?

a) Trypanosoma cruzi

b) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

c) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

d) Trypanosoma evansi

e) None of the above

a) Trypanosoma cruzi

What disease(s) can Staphylococcus aureus cause?

a) Impetigo

b) Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

c) Septic arthritis

d) All of the above

e) A & B only

d) All of the above

Which of the following diseases causes jaundice (yellow discoloration of skin)?

a) Yellow fever

b) Dengue fever

c) Malaria

d) Ebola

e) Two of the above

e) Two of the above

Which of the following is a common antibiotic drug mechanism of action?

a) Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

b) Altering the DNA of a pathogen

c) Phagocytosis and degradation

d) Targeting the cell walls of all cells

e) Proliferation of white blood cells

a) Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

1. Which of the following best describes the role of white blood cells in the immune system?

a. They produce insulin to regulate blood sugar levels.

b. They help digest food in the stomach.

c. They identify and fight off harmful pathogens like bacteria and viruses.

d. They store energy in the form of fat for the body.

c. They identify and fight off harmful pathogens like bacteria and viruses.

2. Which part of the nervous system is responsible for controlling involuntary functions like heart rate and digestion?

a. Central nervous system (CNS)

b. Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

c. Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

d. Somatic nervous system (SNS)

b. Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

3. What is the primary function of plasmids in bacteria?

a. They help bacteria perform photosynthesis.

b. They carry extra genes that can provide advantages, such as antibiotic resistance.

c.  They are involved in cell division.

d. They protect bacteria from viruses.

b. They carry extra genes that can provide advantages, such as antibiotic resistance.

4. Which of the following is the primary function of the alveoli in the lungs?

a. To exchange gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between the air and blood.

b. To transport oxygen to the blood.

c. To prevent pathogens from entering the lungs.

d. To regulate the pH levels in the body.

a. To exchange gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between the air and blood.

5. Which of the following is a key characteristic of tinea corporis, commonly known as ringworm?

a. It is caused by a bacterial infection of the skin.

b. It is a viral infection that causes fluid-filled blisters.

c. It presents as a scaly, red rash with a circular appearance.

d. It primarily affects the mucous membranes of the mouth and throat.

c. It presents as a scaly, red rash with a circular appearance.

6. Which of the following is a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

a. Bacteria, most commonly Escherichia coli (E. coli)

b. Fungi, such as Candida

c. Viruses, like the flu virus

d. Allergies to certain medications

a. Bacteria, most commonly Escherichia coli (E. coli)

7. Which of the following is a common symptom of a gastrointestinal infection?

a. Skin rashes

b. Severe abdominal pain and diarrhea

c. Muscle weakness

d. Vision problems

b. Severe abdominal pain and diarrhea

8. Which of the following is a common cause of a circulatory system infection, such as endocarditis?

a. A viral infection of the blood vessels

b. A fungal infection of the lungs

c. A bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal tract

d. Bacterial infection of the heart valves

d. Bacterial infection of the heart valves

9. Which of the following factors most directly affects the rate of microbial growth?

a. The color of the microorganism

b. The temperature and availability of nutrients

c. The size of the microorganism

d. The shape of the microorganism

b. The temperature and availability of nutrients

10. Which of the following is true about the structure and function of bacterial spores (endospores)?

a. They are formed during normal growth conditions to help bacteria reproduce.

b. They are involved in protein synthesis during rapid cell division.

c. They are a form of bacterial genetic material used to exchange DNA between bacteria.

d. They are resistant to harsh environmental conditions like heat, UV radiation, and desiccation.

d. They are resistant to harsh environmental conditions like heat, UV radiation, and desiccation.

1. Which of the following is not a meninge in the brain:

a) Dura

b) Arachnoid

c) Pia

d) Glial

d) Glial

Which enzyme is responsible for unzipping the replication fork in DNA replication?

a) Ligase

b) Primase

c) Helicase

d) DNA polymerase

c) Helicase

3. Why are antibodies important in our immune system?

a) They produce hormones, controlling metabolism in our organs.

b) They have immunological memory, providing long term protection.

c) They instantly recognize pathogens, and target many antigens at once.

d) They directly kill pathogens that infect  our immune system.

b) They have immunological memory, providing long term protection.

4. Mature mRNA contains which of the following?

a) introns

b) Exons

c) Okazaki fragments

d) Telomeres

b) Exons

5. What shape is the bacteria spirrilum?

a) round

b) Corkscrew

c) Comma

d) Clusters

b) Corkscrew

6. Which of the following best describe obligate anaerobes?

a) Require molecular oxygen as final electron acceptor

b) Require atmosphere with no O2, organic molecule as final acceptor

c) Can survive with or without oxygen

d) Require very low amounts of oxygen

b) Require atmosphere with no O2, organic molecule as final acceptor

7. Which of the following are involved in allergies?

a) IgA

b) IgE

c) IgD

d) IgG

b) IgE

8. Which of the following is a symptom Otitis externa?

a) Severe peeling of the skin

b) Comedones and papules

c) Discomfort of ear canal

d) Eschar at the site of infection

c) Discomfort of ear canal

9. Which pathogen causes Chicken pox?

a) Varicella zoster virus

b) Measles virus

c) Rubella virus

d) Rhinovirus

a) Varicella zoster virus

10. Human Papillomas is diagnosed through:

a) PCR

b). Viral culture

c) Pap smear

d) Urine sample

c) Pap smear

What appears as a leathery gray patch consisting of dead cells, pus, fibrin, red blood cells, and infectious microbes in diphtheria?

a) Tubercles

b) Pseudomembrane

c) Koplik’s spots

d) Petechiae

b) Pseudomembrane

2. What type of superficial cutaneous mycosis occurs on the feet, causing itching, burning, and dry, cracked skin between the toes.

a) Tinea pedis

b) Tinea unguium

c) Tinea barbae

d) Tinea corporis

a) Tinea pedis

3. Which condition occurs when the normal vaginal microbiota is unbalanced but there is no inflammation?

a) Pelvic inflammatory disease

b) Bacterial vaginitis

c) Bacterial vaginosis

d) Chancroid

c) Bacterial vaginosis

4. In the infectious cycle of tuberculosis, what happens in approximately 90% of infected individuals?

a) Immediate development of secondary tuberculosis

b) Complete elimination of the bacteria

c) Development of progressive primary tuberculosis

d) Formation of tubercles where infection is walled off

d) Formation of tubercles where infection is walled off

5. What is the difference between blackheads and whiteheads in acne?

a) Whiteheads are caused by bacteria while blackheads are caused by fungi

b) Whiteheads are deeper in the skin than blackheads

c) Blackheads are infected while whiteheads are not

d) Blackheads have a dark appearance due to oxidation of lipids in sebum

d) Blackheads have a dark appearance due to oxidation of lipids in sebum

6. In the context of allergies, what happens when an allergen enters the body after the first exposure?

a) Macrophages engulf and destroy the allergen through phagocytosis

b) Memory B cells produce antibodies that neutralize the allergen

c) The allergen binds to mast cell-associated IgE molecules, causing release of histamine

d) T cells directly attack and destroy the allergen

c) The allergen binds to mast cell-associated IgE molecules, causing release of histamine

7. Bacteria that grows best at temperatures between 25-40 degree Celsius are called:

a)  Thermophiles

b) Halophiles

c) Psychrophiles

d) Mesophiles

d) Mesophiles

8. What are the two distinct life forms exhibited by many protozoans?

a) Conidiospore and ascospore

b) Hyphae and mycelium

c) Trophozoite and cyst

d) Scolex and proglottid

c) Trophozoite and cyst

9. What factors contributed to toxins formation in the baked potatoes?

a) Cross-contamination from raw meat

b) Adding vinegar to the potato mixture

c) Wrapping in aluminum foil and holding at room temperature

d) Undercooking the potatoes at low temperatures

c) Wrapping in aluminum foil and holding at room temperature

10. What is the relationship between corticosteroids and strongyloidiasis?

a) Corticosteroids cure strongyloidiasis by suppressing the immune system

b) Corticosteroids have not effect on strongyloidiasis

c) Corticosteroids can cause strongyloidiasis to become more severe

d) Corticosteroids prevent strongyloidiasis by stimulating the immune response

c) Corticosteroids can cause strongyloidiasis to become more severe

Which of the following is utilized by microbes to adhere to host cells?

1. Plasmids

2. Pili

3. Cell wall

4. Ribosomes

Pili

 What is the organism responsible for Cholera?

1. Bacillus cereus

2. Clostridium difficile

3. Vibrio cholerae

4. ETEC

Vibrio cholerae

What are the four major groups of e. Coli strains?

1. ETEC, EPEC, EIEC, and EHEC

2. ATEC, BTEC, CTEC, DTEC

3. e. Coli A, e. Coli B, e. Coli C, e. Coli D

4. e. Coli 1, e. Coli 2, e. Coli 3, e. Coli 4

ETEC, EPEC, EIEC, and EHEC

What microbe is responsible for giardiasis infection?

1. Cyclospora cayetanensis

2. Giardia lamblia

3. Ascaris lumbricoides

4. Trichuris trichiura

Giardia lamblia

Trichuris trichiura is classified as which of the following?

1. Protozoan

2. Bacteria

3. Virus

4. Helminth

Helminth

During which phase does bacteria growth remain constant?

1. Log phase

2. Lag phase

3. Stationary phase

4. Same phase

Stationary phase

What is the primary function of plasma cells?

1. To produce and secrete antibodies

2. Engulf pathogens

3. Destroy bodily waste

4. Trigger plasmolysis

To produce and secrete antibodies

8. Which antibody class is passed down from mother to child through the placenta?

1. IgM

2. IgA

3. IgG

4. IgE

IgG

9. Which type of bacteria have a corkscrew shape?

1. Bacilli

2. Spirochete

3. Cocci

4. Vibrio

Spirochete

10.  Which of the following is not an antibacterial drug?

1. Penicillin

2. Doxycycline

3. Cephalexin

4. Fluconazole

Fluconazole

1. Energy in ATP is found in 

   1. the phosphodiester bonds in phosphate groups

   2. hydrogen bonds between nucleotides 

   3. no energy can be pulled from ATP

   4. in the genetic sequence

The phosphodiester bonds in phosphate groups

2. All bacterial cell walls consist of

   1. A thick LPS layer

   2. NAG and NAM units with peptide cross links and teichoic acid

   3. Chitin

   4. Bacterial cells do not have cell walls

NAG and NAM units with peptide cross links and teichoic acid

3. Which of the following statements is true?

   1. Taenia solium is a tapeworm found in beef

   2. Taeinasis is not caused by helminths in undercooked meat

   3. Taenia saginata is a tapeworm found in port

   4. None of the above

None of the above

(Explanation: Taenia solium is a tapeworm found in pork, not beef; Taenia saginata is a tapeworm found in beef, not pork; Taeniasis can be caused by helminths in undercooked meat, including Taenia species.)

4. A student takes a sample of E. coli in an oxygen rich environment that is growing normally and puts it into a container with no oxygen. Three days later, the student checks it and sees that it looks the same as when it was in the oxygen rich environment . E. coli is a 

   1. Obligate aerobe

   2. Facultative anaerobe

   3. Obligate anaerobe

   4. Capnophile

Facultative anaerobe

5. Tetanus is caused by

   1. Streptococcus pneumoniae

   2. Clostridium tetani

   3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 

   4. Herpes simplex virus

Clostridium tetani

6. A more common name for the condition caused by the varicella-zoster virus is

   1. Polio

   2. Chicken pox

   3. Herpes 

   4. Salmonella

Chicken pox

7. Lymphocytes include

   1. T cells

   2. B cells 

   3. Dendritic cells

   4. A and B

   5. All the above

A and B
(T cells and B cells are types of lymphocytes. Dendritic cells are not classified as lymphocytes.

8. Give the correct pairing for the nucleotide sequence: 5’ ATGCGTAGCTAGC 3’

1. 5’ TACGCATCGATCG 3’

2. 5’ CGAATCTACTTAC 3’ 

3. 5’ GCTAGCTACGCAT 3’

4. 5’ ACGTGACTGATCT 3’

5’ TACGCATCGATCG 3’

9. Why should you pasteurize your milk?

1. Pasteurization is bad because it rids the milk of all the good nutrients

2. It kills harmful microorganisms that may cause serious health conditions

3. It enhances the flavor profile

4. All of the above

It kills harmful microorganisms that may cause serious health conditions

10. Gangrene is a condition where

1. A piece of body tissue dies to lack of blood supply or infection

2. The brain tissue gets inflamed

3. The epidermis hardens and peels off

4. None of the above

A piece of body tissue dies due to lack of blood supply or infection