Coagulation Study Questions, BOC Questions for Coagulation | Quizlet

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302 Terms

1
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1. Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by activation of factor VII?

a. protein C

b. tissue factor

c. plasmin activator

d. thrombomodulin

Tissue factor

2
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2. Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo? in vitro clot formation and not in vivo coagulation?

a. VIIa

b. IIa

c. XIIa

d. Xa

XIIa

3
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3. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coagulation studies is:

a. sodium oxalate

b. sodium citrate

c. heparin

d. EDTA

Sodium citrate

4
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4. Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-blood is correct for coagulation procedures?

a. 1:4

b. 1:5

c. 1:9

d. 1:10

1:9

5
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5. Which results would be expected for the prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) in a patient with polycythemia?

a. both progloned

b. both shortened

c. normal PT, prolonged APTT

d. both normal

Both prolonged

6
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6. What reagents are used in the PT test?

a. thromboplastin and sodium chloride

b. thromboplastin and potassium chloride

c. thromboplastin and calcium

d. actin and calcium chloride

Thromboplastin and calcium

7
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7. Which test would be abnormal in a patient with factor X deficiency?

a. PT only

b. APTT only

c. PT and APTT

d. Thrombin time

PT and APTT

8
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8. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and APTT tests?

a. factor VIII

b. factor IX

c. factor V

d. factor XIII

Factor XIII

9
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9. A modification of which procedure can be used to measure fibrinogen?

a. PT

b. APTT

c. thrombin time

d. fibrin degradation products

Thrombin time

10
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10. Which of the following characterizes vitamin K?

a. it is required for biological activity of fibrinolysis

b. its activity is enhanced by heparin therapy

c. it is required for carboyslation of glutamate residues of some coag factors

d. it is made by endothelial cells

It is required for carboxylation of glutamate

residues of some coagulation factors

11
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11. Which statement about the fibrinogen/fibrin degradation product test is correct?

a. it detects early degradation products (X and Y)

b. it is decreased in DIC

c. it evaluates the coagulation system

d. it detects late degradation products (D and E)

It detects late degradation products (D and E)

12
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12. Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test?

a. II, VII, IX, X

b. VII, X, V, II, I

c. XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

d. XII, VII, X, V, II, I

XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

13
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13. Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-deficient patient?

a. PT only

b. PT and APTT

c. fibinogen level

d. thrombin time

PT and APTT

14
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14. Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)?

a. it uses the International sensitivity ratio (ISR)

b. it standardizes PT results

c. it standardizes APTT results

d. it is used to monitor heparin therapy

It standardizes PT results

15
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15. Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous activator of plasminogen?

a. streptokinase

b. transamidase

c. tissue plasminogen activator

d. tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor

Tissue plasminogen activator

16
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16. Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system?

a. protein C

b. protein S

c. alpha2 antiplasmin

d. alpha2 macroglobulin

α2-Antiplasmin

17
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17. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the D-dimer test?

A. Levels are decreased in DIC

B. Test detects polypeptides A and B

C. Test detects fragments D and E

D. Test has a negative predictive value

Test has a negative predictive value

18
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18. A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is:

A. Factor I

B. Factor VIII

C. Factor IX

D. Factor XI

Factor I

19
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19. A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0 mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the necessary course of action by the technologist?

A. Run both tests in duplicate and report the average result

B. Reject the sample and request a new sample

C. Report the PT result

D. Report the APTT result

Reject the sample and request a new sample

20
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20. Which statement is correct regarding sample storage for the prothrombin time test?

A. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped

B. Stable for 24 hours if the sample is refrigerated at 4°C

C. Stable for 4 hours if the sample is stored at 4°C

D. Should be run within 8 hours

Stable for 24 hours if the sample is capped

21
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21. In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results in response to:

A. Increased fibrin formation

B. Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis

C. Increased fibrin monomers

D. DIC Hemostasis/Apply knowledge of fundamental biological characteristics/Fibrin

Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis

22
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22. Plasminogen deficiency is associated with:

A. Bleeding

B. Thrombosis

C. Increased fibrinolysis

D. Increased coagulation Hemostasis/Correlate clinical

thrombosis

23
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23. Which of the following clotting factors are activated by thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-VIIa)?

A. XII, XI

B. XII, I

C. I, II

D. V, VIII

V, VIII

24
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24. What substrate is used in a chromogenic factor assay?

A. p-nitroanaline

B. Chloropheonol red

C. Prussian blue

D. Ferricyanide

p-nitroanaline

25
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25. Which of the following antibodies is used in the D-dimer assay?

A. Polyclonal directed against X and Y fragments

B. Polyclonal directed against D-dimer

C. Monoclonal against D and E fragments

D. Monoclonal against D-dimer

Monoclonal against D-dimer

26
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1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by:

A. Prolonged PT

B. Increased platelet aggregation

C. Thrombocytosis

D. Prolonged APTT

Increased platelet aggregation

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2. Thrombocytopenia may be associated with:

A. Postsplenectomy B. Hypersplenism C. Acute blood loss D. Increased proliferation of pluripotential stem cells

hypersplenism

28
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3. Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme?

A. Phospholipase

B. Cyclo-oxygenase

C. Thromboxane A2 synthetase

D. Prostacyclin synthetase

Cyclo-oxygenase

29
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4. Normal platelet adhesion depends upon:

A. Fibrinogen

B. Glycoprotein Ib

C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex

D. Calcium

Glycoprotein Ib

30
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5. Which of the following test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand's disease?

A. Bleeding time

B. Activated partial thromboplastin time

C. Platelet count

D. Factor VIII:C and von Willebrand's factor (VWF) levels

Platelet count

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6. Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with:

A. Decreased bleeding time

B. Decreased factor VIII assay

C. Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

D. Abnormal platelet aggregation to ADP Hemostasis/C

Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

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7. When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation results would most likely be associated with Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP,

and ristocetin

B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and

epinephrine; decreased aggregation to ristocetin

C. Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine and

ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen

and ADP

D. Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine,

ristocetin, and collagen; decreased aggregation

to ADP

Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and

epinephrine; decreased aggregation to ristocetin

33
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8. Which set of platelet responses would be most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?

A. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP and

ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen

B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen;

decreased aggregation to ADP and ristocetin

C. Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin;

decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP, and

epinephrine

D. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP; decreased

aggregation to collagen and ristocetin

Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin;

decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP, and

epinephrine

34
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9. Which of the following is a characteristic of acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A. Spontaneous remission within a few weeks

B. Predominantly seen in adults

C. Nonimmune platelet destruction

D. Insidious onset

Spontaneous remission within a few weeks

35
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10. TTP differs from DIC in that:

A. APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC

B. Schistocytes are not present in TTP but are

present in DIC

C. Platelet count is decreased in TTP but normal

in DIC

D. PT is prolonged in TTP but decreased in DIC

Hemostasis/Correlate clinical and

APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC

36
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11. Several hours after birth, a baby boy develops petechiae and purpura and a hemorrhagic diathesis. The platelet count is 18 × 109/L. What is the most likely explanation for the low platelet count?

A. Drug-induced thrombocytopenia

B. Secondary thrombocytopenia

C. Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

D. Neonatal DIC

Hemostasis/Correlate clinical and laboratory

data/Platelet disord

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

37
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12. Which of the following is associated with post-transfusion purpura (PTP)?

A. Nonimmune thrombocytopenia/alloantibodies

B. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/

alloantibodies

C. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/

autoantibodies

D. Nonimmune-mediated thrombocytopenia/

autoantibodies

Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/

alloantibodies

38
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13. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is associated with:

A. Fever, thrombocytosis, anemia, and renal failure

B. Fever, granulocytosis, and thrombocytosis

C. Escherichia coli 0157:H7

D. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis

Hemostasis/Apply knowledge of fund

Escherichia coli 0157:H7

39
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14. Storage pool deficiencies are defects of:

A. Platelet adhesion

B. Platelet aggregation

C. Platelet granules

D. Platelet production

Hemostasis/Apply kno

Platelet granules

40
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15. Lumi-aggregation measures:

A. Platelet aggregation only

B. Platelet aggregation and ATP release

C. Platelet adhesion

D. Platelet glycoprotein Ib

Hemostasis/Select methods/Reagents/Specimen

collection and hand

Platelet aggregation and ATP release

41
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16. Neurological findings may be commonly associated with which of the following disorders?

A. HUS

B. TTP

C. ITP

D. PTP

TTP

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17. Which of the following is correct regarding acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A. Autoimmune disease

B. Decreased VWF

C. Decreased platelet aggregation

D. Decreased platelet adhesion

Hemostasis/Apply knowled

Autoimmune disease

43
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18. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of:

A. Platelets

B. Clotting proteins

C. Fibrinolysis

D. Connective tissue

Hemostasis/

Connective tissue

44
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19. Which of the following prevents platelet aggregation?

A. Thromboxane A2

B. Thromboxane B2

C. Prostacyclin

D. Antithrombin

Hemostasis/Ap

Prostacyclin

45
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20. Which defect characterizes Gray's syndrome?

A. Platelet adhesion defect

B. Dense granule defect

C. Alpha granule defect

D. Coagulation defect

Hemostasis/Appl

Alpha granule defect

46
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21. The P2Y12 ADP receptor agonist assay may be used to monitor platelet aggregation inhibition to which of the following drugs?

A. Warfarin

B. Heparin

C. LMWH

D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

47
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22. Which of the following instruments can be used to evaluate platelet function?

A. Platelet aggregometer

B. VerifyNow

C. PFA-100

D. All of the above

all of the above

48
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23. Which of the following platelet aggregating agents demonstrates a monophasic aggregation curve when used in optimal concentration?

A. Thrombin

B. Collagen

C. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

D. Epinephrine

Hemostasis/A

Collagen

49
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1. The APTT is sensitive to a deficiency of which clotting factor?

A. Factor VII

B. Factor X

C. PF3

D. Calcium

Hemostasis/

Factor X

50
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2. Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?

A. Thrombin time

B. APTT

C. PT

D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

Hemostasis/Correlate clinical and labor

immunologic fibrinogen level

51
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3. A patient with a prolonged PT is given intravenous vitamin K. The PT corrects to normal after24 hours. What clinical condition most likely caused these results?

A. Necrotic liver disease

B. Factor X deficiency

C. Fibrinogen deficiency

D. Obstructive jaundice

Hemostasis/C

Obstructive jaundice

52
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4. Which factor deficiency is associated with a prolonged PT and APTT?

A. X

B. VIII

C. IX

D. XI

X

53
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5. A prolonged APTT is corrected with factor VIII- deficient plasma but not with factor IX-deficient plasma. Which factor is deficient?

A. V

B. VIII

C. IX

D. X

IX

54
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6. Which of the following is a characteristic of classic hemophilia A?

A. Prolonged bleeding time

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

C. Mild to severe bleeding episodes

D. Prolonged PT

Mild to severe bleeding episodes

55
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7. Refer to the following results:

PT = prolongedAPTT = prolongedPlatelet count = decreasedWhich disorder may be indicated?

A. Factor VIII deficiency

B. von Willebrand's disease

C. DIC

D. Factor IX deficiency

Hemostasis/

DIC

56
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8. Which of the following is a predisposing condition for the development of DIC?

A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

C. Post-transfusion purpura (PTP)

D. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

Hemostasis/Correlat

Adenocarcinoma

57
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9. Factor XII deficiency is associated with:

A. Bleeding episodes

B. Epistaxis

C. Decreased risk of thrombosis

D. Increased risk of thrombosis

Hemostasis/

Increased risk of thrombosis

58
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10. The following results were obtained on a patient: normal platelet count and function, normal PT, and prolonged APTT. Which of the following disorders is most consistent with these results?

A. Hemophilia A

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

C. von Willebrand's disease

D. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia

Hemostasis/Co

Hemophilia A

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11. The following laboratory results were obtained from a 40-year-old woman: PT = 20 sec; APTT = 50 sec; thrombin time = 18 sec. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Factor VII deficiency

B. Factor VIII deficiency

C. Factor X deficiency

D. Hypofibrinogenemia

Hemostasis/

Hypofibrinogenemia

60
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12. When performing a factor VIII activity assay, a patient's plasma is mixed with:

A. Normal patient's plasma

B. Factor VIII deficient plasma

C. Plasma with a high concentration of factor VIII

D. Normal control plasma

Hemostasis/A

Factor VIII deficient plasma

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13. The most suitable product for treatment of factor VIII deficiency is:

A. Fresh frozen plasma

B. Factor VIII concentrate

C. Prothrombin complex concentrate

D. Factor V Leiden

Hemostasis/Cor

Factor VIII concentrate

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14. Which of the following is associated with abnormal platelet aggregation test?

A. Factor VIII deficiency

B. Factor VIII inhibitor

C. Lupus anticoagulant

D. Afibrinogenemia

Hemostasi

Afibrinogenemia

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15. Refer to the following results:

PT = normal

APTT = prolonged Bleeding time= increased Platelet count = normal Platelet aggregation to ristocetin = abnormal Which of the following disorders may be indicated?

A. Factor VIII deficiency

B. DIC

C. von Willebrand's disease

D. Factor IX deficiency

Hemostasis/C

von Willebrand's disease

64
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16. Which results are associated with hemophilia A?

A. Prolonged APTT, normal PT

B. Prolonged PT and APTT

C. Prolonged PT, normal APTT

D. Normal PT and APTT

Hemostasis/

Prolonged APTT, normal PT

65
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17. Fibrin monomers are increased in which of the following conditions?

A. Primary fibrinolysis

B. DIC

C. Factor VIII deficiency

D. Fibrinogen deficiency

Hemostasis/Co

DIC

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18. Which of the following is associated with multiple factor deficiencies?

A. An inherited disorder of coagulation

B. Severe liver disease

C. Dysfibrinogenemia

D. Lupus anticoagulant

Hemostasis/C

Severe liver disease

67
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19. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a poor wound healing may be associated with:

A. Factor VII deficiency

B. Factor VIII deficiency

C. Factor XII deficiency

D. Factor XIII deficiency

Hemostasis/Co

Factor XIII deficiency

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20. Fletcher factor (prekallikrein) deficiency may be associated with:

A. Bleeding

B. Thrombosis

C. Thrombocytopenia

D. Thrombocytosis

Hemostasis/C

Thrombosis

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21. One of the complications associated with a severe hemophilia A is:

A. Hemarthrosis

B. Mucous membrane bleeding

C. Mild bleeding during surgery

D. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia

Hemostasis/

Hemarthrosis

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22. The most common subtype of classic von Willebrand's disease is:

A. Type 1

B. Type 2A

C. Type 2B

D. Type 3

Type 1

71
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23. A prolonged APTT and PT are corrected when mixed with normal plasma. Which factor is most likely deficient?

A. VIII

B. V

C. XI

D. IX

V

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1. Which characteristic describes antithrombin (AT)?

A. It is synthesized in megakaryocytes

B. It is activated by protein C

C. It is a cofactor of heparin

D. It is a pathological inhibitor of coagulation

Hemost

It is a cofactor of heparin

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2. Which laboratory test is affected by heparin therapy?

A. Thrombin time

B. Fibrinogen assay

C. Protein C assay

D. Protein S assay

Hematology/Apply knowledge of fundamental

biological ch

Thrombin time

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3. An abnormal APTT caused by a pathological circulating anticoagulant is:

A. Corrected with factor VIII-deficient plasma

B. Corrected with factor IX-deficient plasma

C. Corrected with normal plasma

D. Not corrected with normal plasma

Hemostas

Not corrected with normal plasma

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4. The lupus anticoagulant affects which of the following tests?

A. Factor VIII assay

B. Factor IX assay

C. VWF assay

D. Phospholipid-dependent assays

Hemostasi

Phospholipid-dependent assays

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5. Which statement about Coumadin (warfarin) is accurate?

A. It is a vitamin B antagonist

B. It is not recommended for pregnant and

lactating women

C. It needs antithrombin as a cofactor

D. APTT test is used to monitor its dosage

Hemost

It is not recommended for pregnant and

lactating women

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6. Which statement regarding protein C is correct?

A. It is a vitamin K-independent zymogen

B. It is activated by fibrinogen

C. It activates cofactors V and VIII

D. Its activity is enhanced by protein S

Hemostasis/

Its activity is enhanced by protein S

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7. Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant?

A. Thrombin time test

B. Diluted Russell's viper venom test (DRVVT)

C. D-dimer test

D. FDP test

Hemostasis/Co

Diluted Russell's viper venom test (DRVVT)

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8. Which of the following is most commonly associated with activated protein C resistance (APCR)?

A. Bleeding

B. Thrombosis

C. Epistaxis

D. Menorrhagia

Hemostasis/

Thrombosis

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9. A 50-year-old man has been on heparin for the past 7 days. Which combination of the tests is expected to be abnormal?

A. PT and APTT only

B. APTT, TT only

C. APTT, TT, fibrinogen assay

D. PT, APTT, TT

Hemos

PT, APTT, TT

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10. Which of the following drugs inhibits ADP mediated platelet aggregation?

A. Heparin

B. Warfarin

C. Aspirin

D. Prasugrel

Hemostasi

Prasugrel

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11. Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex is necessary for activation of:

A. Protein C

B. Antithrombin

C. Protein S

D. Factors V and VIII

Hemostasis/Apply knowledge of fundamental biological

characteristics

protein C

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12. What test is used to monitor heparin therapy?

A. INR

B. APTT

C. TT

D. PT

APTT

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13. What test is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy?

A. INR

B. APTT

C. TT

D. Ecarin time

Hemost

INR

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14. What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?

A. V and X

B. Va and VIIIa

C. VIII and IX

D. VIII and X

Hemost

Va and VIIIa

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15. Which drug promotes fibrinolysis?

A. Warfarin

B. Heparin

C. Urokinase

D. Aspirin

Hem

Urokinase

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16. Diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant is confirmed by which of the following criteria?

A. Decreased APTT

B. Correction of the APPT by mixing studies

C. Neutralization of the antibody by high

concentration of platelets

D. Confirmation that abnormal coagulation tests are

time and temperature dependent

Hemo

Neutralization of the antibody by high concentration of platelets

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17. Which of the following abnormalities is consistent with the presence of lupus anticoagulant?

A. Decreased APTT/bleeding complications

B. Prolonged APTT/thrombosis

C. Prolonged APTT/thrombocytosis

D. Thrombocytosis/thrombosis

Hem

Prolonged APTT/thrombosis

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18. Which of the following is a characteristic of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?

A. Generally requires monitoring

B. Specifically acts on factor Va

C. Has a longer half-life than unfractionated

heparin

D. Can be used as a fibrinolytic agent

Hemost

Has a longer half-life than unfractionated heparin

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19. Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?

A. Platelet morphology

B. Platelet count

C. Bleeding time

D. Prothrombin time

Hemost

Bleeding time

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20. Which of the following is associated with antithrombin deficiency?

A. Thrombocytosis

B. Thrombosis

C. Thrombocytopenia

D. Bleeding

Hemostasis/

Thrombosis

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21. Which of the following may be associated with thrombotic events?

A. Decreased protein C

B. Increased fibrinolysis

C. Afibrinogenemia

D. ITP

Decreased protein C

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22. Aspirin resistance may be associated with:

A. Bleeding

B. Factor VIII deficiency

C. Thrombosis

D. Thrombocytosis

Hemostasi

Thrombosis

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23. A prolonged thrombin time is indicative of which of the following antithrombotic therapies?

A. Prasugrel

B. Clopidogrel

C. Aspirin

D. Heparin

Hemos

Heparin

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24. Screening tests for thrombophilia should be performed on:

A. All pregnant women because of the thrombotic

risk

B. Patients with a negative family history

C. Patients with thrombotic events occurring at a

young age

D. Patients who are receiving anticoagulant therapy

Hemost

Patients with thrombotic events occurring at a

young age

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25. Prothrombin G20210A is characterized by which of the following causes and conditions?

A. Single mutation of prothrombin molecule/

bleeding

B. Single mutation of prothrombin molecule/

thrombosis

C. Decreased levels of prothrombin in plasma/

thrombosis

D. Increased levels of prothrombin in plasma/

bleeding

Hemost

Single mutation of prothrombin molecule/

thrombosis

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26. Factor V Leiden promotes thrombosis by preventing:

A. Deactivation of factor Va

B. Activation of factor V

C. Activation of protein C

D. Activation of protein S

H

Deactivation of factor Va

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27. What is the approximate incidence of antiphospholipid antibodies in the general population?

A. <1%

B. 2%

C. 10%

D. 20%

Hem

2%

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28. Which of the following laboratory tests is helpful in the diagnosis of aspirin resistance?

A. APTT

B. PT

C. Platelet count and morphology

D. Platelet aggregation

Hemost

Platelet aggregation

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29. Which of the following complications may occur as a result of decreased tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)?

A. Increased hemorrhagic episodes

B. Increased thrombotic risk

C. Impaired platelet plug formation

D. Immune thrombocytopenia

Hemost

Increased thrombotic risk