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(A) Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?
(A) Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees (B) Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees (C) Medial oblique 45 degrees
(D) Lateral oblique 45 degrees
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements with respect to the PA chest seen in Figure 2–11 is (are) correct?
1. Adequate inspiration is demonstrated.
2. The shoulders are rolled forward adequately. 3. Rotation is demonstrated.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
B) Prominence of the greater trochanter
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane
as thesymphysis pubis?
(A) Ischial tuberosity
(B) Prominence of the greater trochanter
(C) Anterosuperior iliac spine
(D) Anteroinferior iliac spine
B) 1 and 2 only
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient’s waist for a lateralprojection of the lumbosacral spine to
1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR
2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR
B) 1 and 2 only
To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imagingof the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?
1. Close collimation
2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient
3. Decreased SID
C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Tibial condyles
3. Tibial tuberosity
C) 2 and 3 only
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include
1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
2. lesser tubercle in profile
3. superimposed epicondyles
C) Internal rotation
Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profilemedially?
(A) AP
(B) External rotation
(C) Internal rotation
(D) Neutral position
D) 15 to 30 degrees caudad
With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle anddirection combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?
(A) 5 to 15 degrees caudad (B) 5 to 15 degrees cephalad (C) 15 to 30 degrees cephalad (D) 15 to 30 degrees caudad
A) Avulsion fracture
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bonyfragment pulled from a bony process?
(A) Avulsion fracture (B) Torus fracture
(C) Comminuted fracture (D) Compound fracture
D) Trochlea
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbowjoint?
(A) Semilunar/trochlear notch
(B) Radial head
(C) Capitulum
(D) Trochlea
D) adduction
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
(A) eversion (B) inversion (C) abduction (D) adduction
C. Bregma
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the
(A) diploe (B) lambda (C) bregma (D) pterion
D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph inFigure 2–12?
1. The patient is placed in an RAO position.
2. The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR.
3. The acromion process is free of superimposition.
B) 1 and 2 only
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
1. atlantoaxial joint
2. radioulnar joint
3. temporomandibular joint
B. Nose
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the “Scotty dog”seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
(A) Eye (B) Nose (C) Body (D) Ear
D) contrecoup
An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injuryis referred to as
(A) blowout
(B) Le Fort
(C) contracture
(D) contrecoup
B) Tangential metatarsals/toes
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot bedemonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
(A) Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
(B) Tangential metatarsals/toes
(C) 30-degree medial oblique foot
(D) 30-degree lateral oblique foot
(B) Osgood–Schlatter disease
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibialtuberosity?
(A) Ewing sarcoma
(B) Osgood–Schlatter disease
(C) Gout
(D) Exostosis
C) 2 and 3 only
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
2. following inversion or eversion injuries
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear
C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
1. Manubrium
2. Clavicles
3. 24 ribs
A) right main stem bronchus
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
(A) right main stem bronchus
(B) left main stem bronchus
(C) esophagus
(D) proximal stomach
D) 1, 2, and 3
The PA chest radiograph shown in Figure 2–13 demonstrates
1. rotation
2. scapulae removed from lung fields
3. adequate inspiration
A) a left anterior rib
Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. 81. The letter B in Figure 2–13 indicates
(A) a left anterior rib
(B) a right posterior rib
(C) a left posterior rib
(D) a right anterior rib
(C) Coronoid process
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees,and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
(A) Radial head
(B) Ulnar head
(C) Coronoid process
(D) Olecranon process
D) 1, 2, and 3
The structures forming the brain stem include
1. the pons
2. the medulla oblongata
3. the midbrain
C) 2 and 3 only
The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the followingprojections?
1. Lateral cervical spine
2. Lateral thoracic spine
3. Lateral lumbar spine
A) Dome of the acetabulum
What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine(ASIS) and pubic symphysis?
(A) Dome of the acetabulum
(B) Femoral neck
(C) Greater trochanter
(D) Iliac crest
B) sphenoidal sinus
The structure labeled 3 in Figure 2–14 is the
(A) maxillary sinus (B) sphenoidal sinus (C) ethmoidal sinus (D) frontal sinus
(B) Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)
Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2–14?
(A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method)
(B) Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)
(C) Lateral projection
(D) Submentovertical projection
B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?
1. Modified Waters (mouth open)
2. Lateral
3. PA axial
C) 2 and 3 only
The radiograph shown in Figure 2–15 demonstrates the articulation between the
1. talus and the calcaneus
2. calcaneus and the cuboid
3. talus and the navicular
D) Medial epicondyle
Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee shown in Figure 2–16.
(A) Lateral condyle
(B) Lateral epicondyle
(C) Medial condyle
(D) Medial epicondyle
B) 30-degree oblique
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)
(A) AP projection
(B) 30-degree oblique
(C) 45-degree oblique
(D) AP axial
B) avoid superimposition on the apices
The patient’s chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
(A) permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position
(B) avoid superimposition on the apices
(C) assist in maintaining an upright position
(D) keep the MSP parallel
B) epiphysis
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
(A) diaphysis (B) epiphysis (C) metaphysis (D) apophysis
A) AP projection
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
(A) AP projection
(B) lateral projection
(C) medial oblique projection
(D) lateral oblique projection
C) Body
The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the “Scotty dog” seen in acorrectly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
(A) Eye (B) Nose (C) Body (D) Neck
D) the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7.
All the following statements regarding the position shown in Figure 2– 17 are true except
(A) a left pleural effusion could be demonstrated. (B) a right pneumothorax could be demonstrated. (C) a left lateral decubitus position is illustrated. (D) the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7.
C) 45-degree internal rotation
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
(A) AP
(B) 90 degrees mediolateral
(C) 45-degree internal rotation
(D) 45-degree external rotation
D) C4
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
(A) Foramen magnum
(B) Trachea
(C) Pharynx
(D) C4
B) Common bile duct
What is the structure indicated by the number 8 in Figure 2–18?
(A) Common hepatic duct
(B) Common bile duct
(C) Cystic duct
(D) Pancreatic duct
C) Cystic duct
What is the structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 2–18?
(A) Common hepatic duct
(B) Common bile duct
(C) Cystic duct
(D) Pancreatic duct
C) Hydronephrosis
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction orstricture?
(A) Pyelonephrosis (B) Nephroptosis (C) Hydronephrosis (D) Cystourethritis
C) Hysterosalpingogram
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaquecontrast medium through a uterine cannula?
(A) Retrograde pyelogram
(B) Voiding cystourethrogram
(C) Hysterosalpingogram
(D) Myelogram
(B) Lateral
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
(A) AP
(B) Lateral
(C) Acute flexion
(D) AP partial flexion
(A) hemoptysis
The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is
(A) hemoptysis
(B) hematemesis
(C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
(D) bronchitis
D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are mediastinal structures?
1. Heart
2. Trachea
3. Esophagus
D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the positionillustrated in Figure 2–19?
1. The right (adjacent to the table) ureter is parallel to the IR.
2. The left (elevated) kidney is parallel to the IR.
3. The degree of obliquity should be about 30 degrees.
C) Internal rotation
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed onthe humeral head?
(A) AP
(B) External rotation
(C) Internal rotation
(D) Neutral position
C) Intercondyloid fossa
With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2–20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?
(A) Patella
(B) Patellofemoral articulation
(C) Intercondyloid fossa
(D) Tibial tuberosity
C) Zygomatic arch
Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in Figure 2– 21?
(A) Maxillary sinus (B) Coronoid process (C) Zygomatic arch (D) Coracoid process
C) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
C) 2 and 3 only
Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?
1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid
B) Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.
What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown inFigure 2–22?
(A) Use a perpendicular CR.
(B) Angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.
(C) Angle the CR about 30 degrees caudad.
(D) Angle the MSP 15 degrees toward the affected side.
B) 1 and 2 only
Courtesy of Stamford Hospital, Department of Radiology. 117. Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include
1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body
B) Compound
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through theskin?
(A) Closed
(B) Compound
(C) Compression
(D) Depressed
D) midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR.
The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
(A) coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR
(B) midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR
(C) coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR
(D) midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR.
D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral
C.
The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the
(A) transverse processes
(B) vertebral arches
(C) laminae
(D) pedicles
B.
The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed
(A) mechanical (B) paralytic
(C) asymptomatic (D) sterile
D) 1, 2, and 3
Radiography of which of the following structure(s) in the AP or PA positionwill inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part?
1. Kidney 2. Scaphoid 3. Sigmoid
B) Upper-limb venogram
Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins?
(A) Aortofemoral arteriogram (B) Upper-limb venogram (C) Lower-limb venogram (D) Renal venogram
A. 1 only
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to the imagesshown in Figure 2–23?
1. Image A was made with cephalad angulation.
2. Image B was made with cephalad angulation.
3. Images A and B were made with CR directed 15 degrees cephalad.
A. asthenic
The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and
lowmidline stomach and gallbladder is the
(A) asthenic
(B) hyposthenic
(C) sthenic
(D) hypersthenic
C) Horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fractureof the cervical spine?
(A) Oblique cervical spine, seated
(B) AP cervical spine, recumbent
(C) Horizontal beam lateral
(D) Laterals in flexion and extension
D.
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
(A) Distal interphalangeal joints (B) Proximal interphalangeal joints (C) Metacarpals
(D) Radial styloid process
C) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of theshoulder is (are) true?
1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.
2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft. 3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.
A) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
1. Short, wide, transverse heart
2. High and peripheral large bowel
3. Diaphragm positioned low
C. tongue
Glossitis refers to inflammation of the
(A) epiglottis
(B) salivary glands
(C) tongue
(D) ossicles
B. Rami
With the patient’s head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degreescephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
(A) Symphysis
(B) Rami
(C) Body
(D) Angle
B) midcoronal plane
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior andposterior halves, is termed the
(A) median sagittal plane (MSP)
(B) midcoronal plane
(C) sagittal plane
(D) transverse plane
A) toward the affected side
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbentand obliqued 45 degrees
(A) toward the affected side
(B) away from the affected side
(C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position
(D) with the arm in external rotation
C. Spinous Process
Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 1 inFigure 2–24?
(A) Body of L3
(B) Body of L4
(C) Spinous process
(D) Transverse process
A. Tranverse Colon
During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to
bevisualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?
(A) Transverse colon
(B) Descending colon
(C) Ascending colon
(D) Left and right colic flexures
(C) 2 and 3 only
Central ray angulation may be required for
1. magnification of anatomic structures
2. foreshortening or self-superimposition
3. superimposition of overlying structures
C) Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate thetarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
(A) Invert the foot.
(B) Evert the foot.
(C) Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly.
(D) Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.
C) 2 and 3 only
Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that
1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR.
2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally.
3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.
A.
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1interspace?
(A) Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad
(B) Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle caudad
(C) Patient AP with 0-degree angle
(D) Patient lateral, coned to L5
C) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR
Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when
(A) object shape does not coincide with the shape of x-ray beam
(B) object plane is not parallel with x-ray tube and/or IR
(C) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR
(D) anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR
C.
Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses,coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
(A) sonography
(B) computed tomography (CT)
(C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(D) nuclear medicine
(C) 1 and 3 only
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
(B) Prone recumbent
In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in Figure 2–25 probably made?
(A) Supine recumbent
(B) Prone recumbent
(C) PA upright
(D) Supine Trendelenburg
B) 1 and 2 only
A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
1. Sacral vertebrae
2. Thoracic vertebrae
3. Lumbar vertebrae
B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the IR.
2. The MSP is parallel to the IR.
3. The CR enters 3⁄4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM.
C) metaphysis
That ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced bybone is known as the
(A) diaphysis (B) epiphysis (C) metaphysis (D) apophysis
A) LAO
Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
(A) LAO (B) RAO (C) LPO (D) Erect
(A) Right iliac
The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following bodyregions?
(A) Right iliac (B) Left iliac
(C) Right lumbar (D) Hypogastric
B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of theacromioclavicular joints?
1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.
A.
A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults andarising from bone marrow is
(A) Ewing sarcoma
B) multiple myeloma
C.) enchondroma
(D) osteochondroma
B. Hilus
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
(A) root
(B) hilus
(C) carina
D) epiglottis
D.
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base,sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?
(A) AP axial
(B) Lateral
(C) Parietoacanthial
(D) Submentovertical (SMV)
B) 2 only
Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiographshown in Figure 2–26?
1. The acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib.
2. This projection is performed to evaluate the scapula.
3. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclaviculararticulation.
A) 1 only
Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the
femur?
1. Patellar surface
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3. Linea aspera
C) Myelogram
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the followingexaminations?
(A) Intravenous urogram
B) Retrograde pyelogram
C) Myelogram
(D) Cystogram
D.
In Figure 2–27, the structure indicated as number 7 is which of the following?
(A) Neck of rib
(B) Tubercle of rib
(C) Transverse process
(D) Head of rib
B) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluationcriteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders.
2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.
3. The esophagus is visible in the midline.
B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint bevisualized?
(A) Dorsoplantar projection of the foot (B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis (C) Medial oblique position of the foot (D) Lateral foot
C) 1 and 3 only
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized.
2. talofibular joint is visualized.
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed.
B) 2 only
The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2–28 may be obtained with the patient
1. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees caudad. 2. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad.
3. prone and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad.