DERM Exam I

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Last updated 3:53 PM on 4/5/26
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207 Terms

1
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What are the seven pillars of self-care?

knowledge & health literacy; self-awareness; physical activity; healthy eating; risk avoidance/mitigation; good hygiene; rational use of products & services

2
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What are some general exclusions to self-care?

persistent or prolonged symptoms; CI to therapy; health conditions or status; no qualifying indication; previous self-treatment ineffective

3
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What are the functions of the skin?

temperature regulation (sweat, vasodilation); sensory; synthesizes vitamin D; route of drug administration; protection

4
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the ingredient in a formulation that has the desired pharmacological activity

active pharmaceutical ingredient (API

5
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ingredients in a formulation that do not have the desired pharmacological activity

excipients

6
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the combination of excipients and API

vehicle

7
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the amount of API released from the formulation that penetrates into or through the skin

skin penetration

8
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What are the different occlusion methods?

formulation with hydrophobic excipients or covering application site with bandage or dressing

9
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Hydrated skin is ____ permeable than dry skin

more

10
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The site of application matters: In general, the thicker the stratum corneum, the _____ the penetration of a compound into the skin

lower

11
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dispersions made up of two immiscible liquid phases which are mixed using mechanical shear

emulsions

12
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What is added to an emulsion to help stabilize the internal phase?

surfactant

13
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oil in water (O/W)=

cream

14
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water in oil (W/O) =

ointment

15
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Most APIs penetrate through the skin by ______

passive diffusion

16
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Rate of diffusion through the skin is called

flux

17
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Fick’s law of diffusion =

J = P x (C donor - C receiver)

18
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Fick’s law of diffusion: J =

flux from the donor to receiver

19
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Fick’s law of diffusion: P =

permeability coefficient; a natural property of the API based on its chemical structure

20
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Fick’s law of diffusion: C donor - C receiver =

concentration gradient

21
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Fick’s law of diffusion: to increase flux

increase permeability of increase concentration of API (C donor)

22
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Chemicals that enhance drug transport across the skin by increasing the thermodynamic prosperity of drug in the patch system or by altering the stratum corneum

permeation enhancers

23
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a measurement of barrier properties of the stratum corneum; measures the rate of water evaporation

transdermal epidermal water loss test

24
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What are the advantages of transdermal drug deliver over oral?

avoids hepatic first pass metabolism; eliminates GI side effects due to local effects; longer duration of activity

25
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What are the advantages of transdermal drug delivery over parenteral?

easily self-administered with no needles; longer duration of activity

26
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What are the limitations of transdermal delivery?

poor skin permeation of most APIs; skin irritation; individual variation; dosing limitations

27
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What are the ideal API properties for transdermal drug delivery?

dail dose <20 mg; half-life suitable for once daily dosing; MW <1000 Da; balance of lipophilicity/hydrophilicity; non-irritating and non-sensitizing to skin

28
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Components of transdermal patches: drug impermeable membrane prepared with plastic polymers and metal foils

backing membrane

29
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Components of transdermal patches: silicone or acrylate polymers

pressure sensitive adhesive

30
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Components of transdermal patches: drug impermeable protecting layer that is peeled off before use

release liner

31
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Components of transdermal patches: matrix or reservior

formulation

32
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What is used for in vitro release tests for topical formulations?

Fraz Cell Apparatus

33
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Fraz Cell Apparatus: to determine the rate of release of the API from the vehicle through non-rate limiting membrane

drug release

34
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Fraz Cell Apparatus: to determine the rate of penetration of the API through skin sample or synthetic membrane

drug penetration/skin permeability

35
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Fraz Cell Apparatus: barrier or no barrier to diffusion

difference is type of membrane used in test

36
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What are some examples of penetration enhancers?

solvents, surfactants, terpenes, cyclodextrins, keratolytics, phospholipids, fatty acids and alcohols

37
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refers to the written, printed or graphic matter appearing on the immediate commercial container of a drug product

label

38
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information printed on the label AND outside package of a drug product

labeling

39
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labeling includes:

package insert, patient insert and MedGuide

40
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What required all consumer products in interstate commerce to be honestly and informatively labeled?

1966 Fair Packaging and Labeling Act

41
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For prescription drugs, the manufacturer’s duty is to provide prescribing physicians with information, so that the prescriber is then better equipped to educate the consumer/patient; this is called

learned intermediary doctrine

42
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What are the two formats of a package insert?

physician labeling rule (PLR) and old (non-PLR) format

43
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What are the two main components of a package insert?

highlights of prescribing information (HPI) and full prescribing information (FPI)

44
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provides immediate access to the information to which practitioners most commonly refer and regard as most important

HPI section of a package insert

45
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What are the indications for using a drug off-label?

practitioners find promising uses for drugs much faster than they can be approved; manufacturers often seek NDA approvals with minimum number of indications for faster approval

46
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promoting off-label use of a drug to the public is ______

illegal

47
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T/F: manufacturers can promote off-label use of a drug to providers

True

48
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A document, provided by the manufacturer and written in lay language that is intended to educate the patient about the proper use and potential dangers inherent in the use of product

patient package insert (PPI)

49
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____ MUST be provided to the patient by anyone dispensing this drug; failure to do so is considered _______

PPIs; misbranding

50
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What is an example of a drug that has to be dispensed with a PPI?

oral contraceptive

51
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What are some factors that go into determining if a drug needs a MedGuide?

labeling could help prevent serious AEs; serious risk relative to benefit that pt should be aware of to decide whether to use; pt adherence to directions is critical to the drugs’s effectiveness

52
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written information provided by the pharmacy for all drugs =

consumer medication information (CMI)

53
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What patient drug information is NOT federally mandated and NOT approved by FDA before distribution?

CMI

54
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The process of combining, mixing or altering ingredients to create a medication tailored to the needs of an individual patient

drug compounding

55
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compounded preparation are ____ FDA approved

NOT

56
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______ pharmacy compounding is considered a practice of pharmacy regulated by state boards of pharmacy, NOT regulated by FDA

traditional

57
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: medication is NOT commercially available

compounding

58
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: made for individual patients

compounding

59
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: cannot be sold in bulk for resale

compounding

60
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: cannot advertise specific drugs

compounding

61
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: medication is commercially available

manufacturing

62
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: made in mass production

manufacturing

63
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: can be sold in bulk for resale

manufacturing

64
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Pharmacy compounding vs manufacturing: can advertise specific drugs

manufacturing

65
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What granted the FDA more authority to regulate and monitor manufacturing of compounded drugs?

Drug Quality and Security Act

66
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Drug Quality and Security Act 503A =

traditional compounding pharmacy that compounds in accordance to patient specific prescription and is regulated by the state boards of pharmacy

67
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Drug Quality and Security Act 503B =

outsourcing facility that may produce large batches with or w/o prescriptions to be sold to healthcare facilities as office use or shipping out of state and is regulated by FDA

68
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USP 795 =

non-sterile compounding

69
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USP 797 =

sterile compounding

70
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USP 800 =

hazardous drugs

71
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Xerosis =

dry skin

72
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What is the most common cause of pruritus?

dry skin

73
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Dry skin affects ______ more frequently

older adults

74
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How does the epidermis change as we age, leading to dry skin?

decreased ceramides in the skin results in water loss; abnormal maturation and adhesion of keratinocytes results in a superficial, irregular layer of corneocytes; hormonal decline = less sebum production

75
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Eczema craquele =

cracked appearance

76
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Ichthyosis =

fish-scaling appearance

77
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When should oil-based emollients be applied for dry skin?

immediately after bathing while skin is damp

78
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contains salts of long-chain fatty acid + alkai metal

soaps/cleansers

79
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Colloidal oatmeal baths should be used with caution in older adults because

it makes the bath and floor very slippery; risk of falls

80
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emollients =

softeners

81
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maintains skin water content by creating a hydrophobic barrier over the skin and blocking trans-epidermal water loss

occlusives

82
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Which occlusive can reduce water loss more than 98%?

petrolatum

83
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hygroscopic substances which help the stratum corneum absorb water by attracting water from the dermis and a humid environment into the epidermis

humectants

84
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deposits within the stratum corneum to make the skin soft and smooth by reestablishing stratum corneum integrity

emollients

85
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What are the different formulations of moisturizers?

lotions, creams, gels, ointments

86
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lotions =

oil in water; non-greasy; great for hairy areas; cooling effect

87
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Creams =

W/O or O/W; made of heavier lipids, use at nighttime

88
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Gels =

W/O or O/W; smooth finishing, non-oily, non-comedogenic; good for intertriginous areas

89
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Ointments =

W/O; greasy/glossy looking; useful when high degree of occlusion required; CI in intertriginous areas

90
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Topical Hydrocortisone often includes _____ which is a possible skin irritant for some people

aloe

91
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What are the complications of dry skin?

itching, inflammation, development of secondary infections

92
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What are the two types of drug-induced dermatologic reactions?

irritant and allergic

93
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Irritant or Allergic drug induced dermatologic reactions: localized

irritant

94
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Irritant or Allergic drug induced dermatologic reactions: allergens

irritant

95
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Irritant or Allergic drug induced dermatologic reactions: IV drug extravasation

irritant

96
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Irritant or Allergic drug induced dermatologic reactions: immune response

allergic

97
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Irritant or Allergic drug induced dermatologic reactions: may be systemic

allergic

98
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Irritant or Allergic drug induced dermatologic reactions: first rxn may be dermal but subsequent exposures may become systemic

allergic

99
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What are some risk factors for developing drug-induced dermatologic reactions?

prior drug reaction; multiple drug therapy; viral illness; dosage/serum drug level increases; topical route; genetic factors; comorbidites

100
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Which type of allergic dermatologic reaction is IgE mediated?

type I

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