Patho Midterm

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Last updated 12:00 AM on 10/7/23
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101 Terms

1
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True or false

Prokaryotes contain no organelles and no distinct nucleus

True

2
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True or false

Eukaryotes contain organelles and a well defined nucleus

True

3
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What is the function of cell polarity?

Maintains normal cell and tissue structure for numerous functions and becomes altered with diseases

4
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True or false

Cell polarity is not altered by diseases

False

5
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What is the function of ATP?

Provides fuel “energy” for living cells

6
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True or false

Energy stored by carbs, lipids, and proteins is catabolized and transferred into ATP

True

7
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In the citric acid cycle/Krebs cycle what is mainly produced and through what process?

ATP, oxidative phosphorylation

8
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Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place if oxygen is present?

Mitochondria

9
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True or false

Electrons are not electrically charged

False

10
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True or false

Cations are negatively charged (migrate towards the positive pole)

Anions are positively charged (migrate towards the negative pole)

False

11
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Define osmotic pressure

The amount of hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the osmotic movement of water

12
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Define oncotic pressure/colloid osmotic pressure

Force exerted by proteins in the blood that draws water into the vessels

13
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True or false

Osmolality is the concentration of molecules per weight of water

True

14
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True or false

Osmolarity is the concentration of molecules per volume of solution

True

15
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Pinocytosis is

a. the ingestion of large particles

b. the ingestion of fluids

b. the ingestion of fluids

16
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Phagocytosis is

a. the ingestion of large particles

b. the ingestion of fluids

a. the ingestion of large particles

17
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What is the difference in charge of electrical impulses known as?

Resting membrane potential (RMP)

18
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Hyperpolarized membrane potential is

a. more negative than normal —> less excitable

b. more positive than normal —> more excitable

a. more negative than normal —> less excitable

19
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Hypopolarized membrane potential is

a. more positive than normal —> more excitable

b. more negative than —> less excitable

a. more positive than normal —> more excitable

20
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Repolarization of an action potential is

a. negative polarity of the RMP is reestablished, Na+ channels close and K+ channels open

b. positive polarity of the RMP is reestablished, Na+ channels open and K+ channels close

a. negative polarity of the RMP is reestablished, Na+ channels close and K+ channels open

21
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True or false

Stem cells are precursor cells with the potential to develop into many different cell types during early development and growth

True

22
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Pyrimidines are

a. adenine (A) and guanine (G) (Double carbon-nitrogen rings)

b. cytosine (C) and thymine (T) (single carbon-nitrogen rings)

b. cytosine (C) and thymine (T) (single carbon-nitrogen rings)

23
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Purines are

a. adenine (A) and guanine (G) (Double carbon-nitrogen rings)

b. cytosine (C) and thymine (T) (single carbon-nitrogen rings)

a. adenine (A) and guanine (G) (Double carbon-nitrogen rings)

24
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In DNA replication complementary base pairing by DNA polymerase ensures that which bases are always paired?

Adenine-thymine and cytosine-guanine

25
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What is the leading known cause of intellectual disability and miscarriage?

Chromosome abnormalities

26
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True or false

Euploid cells have a normal number of chromosomes

False, they have a multiple of the normal number of chromosomes

27
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The euploid form of cells are

a. haploid cells

b. diploid cells

c. both haploid and diploid cells

c. both haploid and diploid cells

28
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What is the cell type called when a euploid cell has more than the diploid number?

Polyploid cell

29
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What is the best known example of aneuploidy?

a. Klinefelter syndrome

b. Turner syndrome

c. Down syndrome

c. Down syndrome

30
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At what maternal age does the risk of having a child with down syndrome increase?

above 35

31
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Loci on a pair of chromosomes have identical genes are

a. homozygous

b. heterozygous

a. homozygous

32
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Loci on a pair of chromosomes have different genes are

a. homozygous

b. heterozygous

b. heterozygous

33
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In a pedigree what is the name given for the first person diagnosed with a disease?

Proband

34
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What is the recurrence risk of autosomal dominant inheritance?

one half

35
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True or false

Expressivity is the extent of variation in phenotype associated with a particular genotype

True

36
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True or false

Autosomal dominant expression is the same for all people with that disease

False, some people have more mild cases and others more severe

37
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True or false

Stress has no impact on epigenetics

False

38
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True or false

Housekeeping genes escape epigenetic silencing and remain transcriptionally active

True

39
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Conditions encountered in utero can have

a. long term impacts on epigenetic states

b. short term impacts on epigenetic states

a. long term impacts on epigenetic states

40
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Which epigenetic modifications can result in disease?

a. abnormal gain

b. abnormal loss

c. both abnormal gain and abnormal loss

c. both abnormal gain and abnormal loss

41
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True or false

Atrophy leads to decrease in cell size

True

42
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From a physiologic standpoint, atrophy cellular adaptation is

a. normal

b. abnormal

a. normal

43
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From a pathologic standpoint, atrophy cellular adaptation is

a. normal

b. abnormal

b. abnormal

44
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True or false

Hypertrophy leads to decreased cell size

False, increased cell size

45
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From a physiologic standpoint, hypertrophy cellular adaptation is

a. normal

b. abnormal

a. normal

46
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From a pathologic standpoint, hypertrophy cellular adaptation is

a. normal

b. abnormal

b. abnormal

47
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Hyperplasia of the endometrium independent of the menstrual cycle is

a. normal bleeding

b. abnormal bleeding

b. abnormal bleeding

48
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Cellular injury mechanisms are

a. oxidative stress, increased intracellular calcium

b. inflammation, complement activation

c. all of the above

c. all of the above

49
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Cellular injury leads to

a. irreversible damage

b. cell death

c. both irreversible damage and cell death

c. both irreversible damage and cell death

50
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True or false

Necrosis has typical features of apoptosis

False

51
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True or false

Cells have a survival mechanism of a recycling factory called autophagy

true

52
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True or false

Edema is an accumulation of fluid within the interstitial spaces

True

53
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Edema is caused by

a. potassium moving into the cell

b. calcium moving into the cell

c. sodium moving into the cell

c. sodium moving into the cell

54
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Water balance is primarily regulated by which hormone?

a. TSH

b. ADH

c. ACTH

b. ADH

55
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True or false

ADH is secreted when circulating blood volume (or BP) reduces —> increasing plasma osmolality —> increasing water reabsorption into the plasma —> increasing BP

True

56
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True or false

changes in pH do not affect K+ balance

False

57
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True or false

Hydrogen ions accumulate in the ICF during states of acidosis —> K+ shifts out of cell to maintain a balance of cations across the membrane —> hypokalemia

false, —> hyperkalemia

58
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True or false

Hypokalemia causes reduced intake of potassium, increased entry of potassium into cells, and increased loss of potassium

True

59
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More acidic conditions are

a. lower pH = higher H+

b. higher pH = lower H+

a. lower pH = higher H+

60
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More alkaline conditions are

a. lower pH = higher H+

b. higher pH = lower H+

b. higher pH = lower H+

61
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Bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffering is the major plasma buffering system that operates in the

a. heart and stomach

b. liver and kidney

c. lung and liver

d. lung and kidney

d. lung and kidney

62
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Put the lines of defense in order from first to third

a. adaptive, innate, inflammatory

b. innate, adaptive, inflammatory

c. inflammatory, adaptive, innate

d. innate, inflammatory, adaptive

d. innate, inflammatory, adaptive

63
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What is the first line of defense as a cell-derived chemical barrier?

a. saliva

b. sweat

c. mucous cells

d. epithelial cells

d. epithelial cells

64
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Local manifestations of inflammation, the second line of defense, are

a. redness

b. redness, heat, swelling

c. pain, loss of function

d. redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

d. redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

65
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What is the protective function of inflammation?

a. limit infection

b. prevent infection

c. reduce infection

d. prevent and limit infection and further damage

d. prevent and limit infection and further damage

66
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What are some examples of pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

a. toll-like receptors

b. scavenger receptors

c. all of the above

d. none of the above

c. all of the above

67
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Which type of blood cell is the predominate type of phagocyte?

a. monocyte

b. lymphocyte

c. eosinophil

d. neutrophil

d. neutrophil

68
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What are the 4 types of adaptive immunity?

a. humoral immunity, cellular immunity, innate immunity, differential immunity

b. cellular immunity, differential immunity, passive immunity, humoral immunity

c. active immunity, passive immunity, innate immunity, likely immunity

d. humoral immunity, cellular immunity, active immunity, passive immunity

d. humoral immunity, cellular immunity, active immunity, passive immunity

69
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True or false

All immunogens are antigens but not all antigens are immunogens

True

70
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What action does T-Cytotoxic (Tc) Cells perform?

a. defend antigens

b. attack antigens

c. support antigens

d. assist antigens

b. attack antigens

71
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What class of immunoglobulin’s are the most abundant?

a. IgA

b. IgM

c. IgD

d. IgG

d. IgG

72
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Where is immunoglobulin A (IgA) predominantly found?

a. interstitial fluid

b. blood

c. placenta

d. plasma

b. blood

73
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What is the largest class of immunoglobulins?

a. IgG

b. IgA

c. IgM

d. IgD

c. IgM

74
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In what life stage does IgM come about?

a. end of life

b. mid life

c. adolescent stage

d. early neonatal life, utero

d. early neonatal life, utero

75
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Which immunoglobulin has a low concentration in the blood?

a. IgG

b. IgA

c. IgM

d. IgD

d. IgD

76
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What is a common cause of allergies when it is produced against innocuous environmental antigens?

a. IgA

b. IgM

c. IgE

d. IgD

c. IgE

77
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Hypersensitivity is an _________ immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host.

a. normal

b. occasional

c. partial

d. excessive/inappropriate

d. excessive/inappropriate

78
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What is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction?

a. anaphylaxis

b. diarrhea

c. constipation

d. upset stomach

a. anaphylaxis

79
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Anaphylaxis can be classified by

a. pain, swelling

b. redness

c. respiratory difficulties, throat closure

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

80
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What is a clinical presentation of immune deficiencies?

a. histamine reactions

b. upset stomach

c. low blood sugar

d. development of unusual/recurrent severe infections

d. development of unusual/recurrent severe infections

81
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The structure of HIV is

a. blood-borne pathogen

b. retrovirus

c. round

d. encapsulated

b. retrovirus

82
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True or false

AIDS leads to a decreased amount of CD4+ T cells

True

83
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Which of the following terms describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies transfer from donor to recipient?

a. active

b. passive

c. cellular

d. memory

b. passive

84
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True or false

Urushiol, a toxin found in poison ivy, is an example of an antigen that does not produce and immune reaction

True

85
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Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves tissue specific antigens?

a. type I

b. type II

c. type III

d. type IV

b. type II

86
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True or false

Virulence is the capacity to cause severe disease

True

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