Micro Final Exam

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144 Terms

1
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What theory states that life can arise from nonliving matter?

Spontaneous generation

2
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What type of relationship harms the host?

Parasitism

3
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What is bacterial movement toward or away from chemicals called?

Chemotaxis

4
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What is the size of eukaryotic ribosomes?

80S

5
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What are the three types of RNA?

Transfer, ribosomal, and messenger RNA

6
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What is the start codon for protein synthesis?

AUG

7
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What is the formula for pH?

pH = –log[H⁺]

8
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What type of transport moves substances from low to high concentration?

Active transport

9
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What is the main function of fimbriae?

Attachment

10
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What happens during a deletion mutation?

Nucleotides are removed from DNA

11
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What are “jumping genes” called?

Transposons

12
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What are infectious proteins called?

Prions

13
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What are the steps of phagocytosis?

Attach → Ingest → Fuse with lysosome → Digest → Discard waste.

14
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What are the steps of Gram staining?

Crystal violet → Iodine → Alcohol → Safranin.

15
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What are the steps of binary fission?

DNA replicates → Cell elongates → Septum forms → Cells separate.

16
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What is a holoenzyme?

A protein combined with cofactors.

17
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When is the maximum rate of cell division?

Exponential (log) phase

18
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What is pasteurization?

Killing microbes with high heat for a short time.

19
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What does isoniazid inhibit?

Mycolic acid synthesis.

20
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What does ciprofloxacin inhibit?

DNA gyrase (nucleic acid synthesis).

21
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What is ethylene oxide used for?

Gas sterilization

22
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What does “bacteriostatic” mean?

Inhibits bacterial growth but doesn’t kill

23
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What does NAD⁺ do?

Acts as an electron shuttle.

24
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What is sterilization?

The elimination of all microbes, viruses, and endospores.

25
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What is a biofilm?

A community of mixed microbes living together.

26
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What type of bacteria require oxygen?

Obligate aerobes.

27
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What type of bacteria die in oxygen?

Obligate anaerobes.

28
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What is a psychrotroph?

Grows from 0–30°C and can spoil food.

29
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What do halogens do to microbes?

Oxidize cell components.

30
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What does selective media do?

Promotes some bacteria, suppresses others.

31
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What does differential media do?

Distinguishes microbes visually.

32
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What is virulence?

Severity of disease after infection.

33
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What are adhesins?

Virulence factors for sticking to host cells.

34
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What biosafety level is Staphylococcus aureus?

Level 2 (BSL-2).

35
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What happens in glycolysis?

Glucose → Fructose → 2 three-carbon molecules → Pyruvate
→ Produces 2 ATP, 2 NADH.

36
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What is the intermediate step between glycolysis and Krebs?

Pyruvate → Acetyl-CoA.

37
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What happens in the Krebs cycle?

Acetyl-CoA + Oxaloacetate → Citrate → Back to oxaloacetate
→ Produces 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH₂.

38
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What are the steps of PCR?

Melting → Extension → Annealing.

39
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What enzyme is used in PCR?

Taq polymerase

40
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Who promoted handwashing to prevent infections?

Ignaz Semmelweis.

41
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Who discovered that specific microbes cause specific diseases?

Robert Koch.

42
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What is a pandemic?

An epidemic that spreads to many countries.

43
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What are dermatophytes?

Fungi that infect skin, hair, and nails.

44
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What causes acquired resistance?

Mutation or resistance genes.

45
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What causes hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Rh⁻ mother with Rh⁺ fetus.

46
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What type of transplant is most compatible?

Autograft.

47
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What is the most abundant antibody class in serum?

IgG.

48
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What kind of molecule is histamine?

Vasoactive molecule.

49
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What is the antibody concentration in serum called?

Titer.

50
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What type of immunity results from injection of an antigen?

Artificially acquired active immunity.

51
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Guillain-Barré syndrome is linked to what infection?

Campylobacter jejuni.

52
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What receptor binds COVID-19?

ACE2.

53
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What do perforins do?

Punch holes in target cells causing lysis.

54
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What bacterium causes whooping cough?

Bordetella pertussis.

55
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What causes the common cold?

Viruses.

56
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What does an indirect ELISA detect?

Antibodies in a patient sample.

57
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What is stridor?

Loud breathing caused by airway blockage.

58
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Where is lysozyme found and what does it do?

Tears and saliva; breaks down bacterial cell walls.

59
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What type of hypersensitivity involves IgG or IgM?

Type II hypersensitivity.

60
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What bacterium causes scarlet fever?

Streptococcus pyogenes.

61
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What is a recombinant vector vaccine?

Genetic material from a pathogen inside a harmless virus or bacterium.

62
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What is the most common type of influenza?

Type A.

63
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What is autoimmunity?

Immune system attacks self tissues.

64
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What illness has a barking cough and stridor?

Croup.

65
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What initiates the lectin complement pathway?

Mannose-binding proteins.

66
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What initiates the classical complement pathway?

Antigen–antibody complexes.

67
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What is antigenic drift?

Random mutations that change viral antigens.

68
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Where do deletion mutations occur?

Deletion mutations occur when one or more nucleotides are removed from a DNA sequence.

69
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What enzyme in sweat breaks down peptidoglycan?

Lysozyme.

70
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What virus causes chickenpox and shingles?

Varicella-Zoster Virus.

71
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What is shingles?

Reactivation of Varicella-Zoster Virus.

72
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What virus causes oral herpes (cold sores)?

HSV-1.

73
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What type of rash includes small raised papules + flat macules?

Maculopapular rash.

74
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Which diseases commonly cause maculopapular rashes?

Measles, rubella, fifth disease, hand-foot-mouth disease.

75
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What is the major pregnancy complication of rubella?

Congenital rubella syndrome (blindness, deafness, heart defects).

76
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What virus causes fifth disease (slapped cheek syndrome)?

Parvovirus B19.

77
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What causes roseola?

Human herpesvirus 6 & 7.

78
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What causes hand, foot, and mouth disease?

Coxsackievirus A26 and Enterovirus 71.

79
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What organism produces exfoliative toxins that cause scalded skin syndrome?

Staphylococcus aureus.

80
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Which bacterium can cause necrotizing fasciitis and toxic shock?

Streptococcus pyogenes.

81
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Which organism produces the blue-green pigment pyocyanin?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

82
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What fungi cause ringworm (tinea)?

Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton.

83
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What organism causes yeast infections?

Candida albicans.

84
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What is the leading cause of preventable microbial blindness?

Trachoma (Chlamydia trachomatis).

85
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What is keratitis?

Inflammation of the cornea.

86
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What organisms commonly cause bacterial keratitis?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus.

87
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What helminth causes river blindness?

Onchocerca volvulus.

88
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What are the protective membranes around the CNS called?

Meninges.

89
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What is inflammation of the meninges?

Meningitis.

90
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What is inflammation of the brain?

Encephalitis.

91
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What is meningoencephalitis?

Inflammation of both meninges and brain.

92
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What is the function of the blood-brain barrier?

Restricts pathogen entry into CNS.

93
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What bacterium causes meningococcal meningitis?

Neisseria meningitidis.

94
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What bacterium causes pneumococcal meningitis?

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

95
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What bacterium causes listeria meningitis?

Listeria monocytogenes.

96
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What three organisms commonly cause neonatal meningitis?

Group B Strep, E. coli, Listeria.

97
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What causes Hansen’s disease (leprosy)?

Mycobacterium leprae.

98
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Which form of leprosy is contagious?

Lepromatous form.

99
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What toxin causes flaccid paralysis?

Botulinum toxin.

100
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How does botulinum toxin cause paralysis?

Blocks acetylcholine release → muscles cannot contract.

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