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163 Terms
1
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Which of the following would NOT decrease demand for cheesecake?
(answer)a rise in the price of cheesecake a fall in consumer income (assume cheesecake is a normal good) a fall in the price of apple pie(a substitute) a rise in the price of strawberries(a compliment)
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According to the Circular Flow diagram, in resource markets () demand () which are supplied by ()
(firms) (resources) (households)
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How do expectation of higher future prices affect the market for Vegas weddings today? (mark all that apply)
Chandler is getting ready for poker night at his apartment. If he was not having poker night, then he could have made $900 at his job in data processing & statistical reconfiguration for multinational corporations. He spent $60 on cigars, $20 on snacks, and $50 on drinks. Which of the following statements about his costs is TRUE? (Mark all that apply.)
His opportunity cost is $900, His implicit cost is $900
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A perfectly inelastic demand curve: (mark all that apply.)
is represented on a graph by a vertical line, has an elasticity coefficient equal to 0
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Which of the following will cause the supply curve to shift to the right?
Answer : An improvement in technology, a decrease in taxation Not Answer: an increase in the price of an input, a fall in the number of sellers
7
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According to the Law of Supply:
the price of a good and the quantity supplied are positively related
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Which of the following will NOT occur in the market for camera when the price of a complement rises?
Answer : Equilibrium price increases Not Answer : demand decreases, equilibrium quantity decreases, there is a surplus at the old price
9
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If last week Central Perk sold 750 coffees for a price of $4.00 each, and this week it sells 650 coffees for a price of $4.50 each, what change most likely occurred in the market for coffee?
decrease in supply
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If consumer income falls, and as a result the demand for a good falls, then that good may be classified as
normal
11
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Fruit juice is an input in jelly. Jelly and bread are complements. If the equilibrium price of fruit juice falls, then the equilibrium price of bread will fall and the equilibrium quantity of bread will rise.
Answer One: Rise Answer Two: Rise
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When the price of a good increases, producer surplus will ___ and consumer surplus will ___.
Answer 1: increase Answer 2: decrease
13
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In a market where demand is given by the equation Qd = 240 - 4P and supply is given by the equation Qs = -12 + 2P, find the equilibrium quantity.
72
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A rise in the price of a mystery good caused a change in the market for blue suits that led to a rise in the equilibrium price of blue suits. Which of the following could possibly be the mystery good? (Mark all that apply.)
Blue thread (an input) red suit (a substitute)
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Which of the following statements about price rationing is FALSE?
Price rationing allows every consumer to have the good. Economists believe price rationing is the least efficient rationing method.
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A beef trifle is an inferior good. When consumer income falls, the ___ for the beef trifles will ___ causing the equilibrium price to ___ and equilibrium quantity to ___.
Demand, increase, increase, increase
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Which of the following consequences results from an effective price floor? (Mark all that apply.)
Surplus, inefficient allocation among producers, protection from imports Not Answers: low quality, inefficient allocation among consumers, shortage
18
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Which of the following is a type of resource?
Natural, Labor, Capital
19
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Which of the following is a means for the government to enforce private property rights?
legal enforcement of contracts, national defense, provide police protection
20
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Champ can cook 48 pancakes or 12 waffles in an hour. Brick can cook 42 pancakes or 7 waffles in an hour. Based on the above information, Brick's opportunity cost of producing one waffle is how many pancakes?
6
21
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Champ can cook 48 pancakes or 12 waffles in an hour. Brick can cook 42 pancakes or 7 waffles in an hour. Based on the above information, which of the following statements is TRUE? (Mark all that apply.)
Brick has a comparative advantage in pancake production.
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Jim can produce 60 units of Jell-O or 12 beets in a day. Dwight can produce 75 units of Jell-O or 25 beets in a day. One beet trades for 4 units of Jell-O. Jim and Dwight completely specialize, and the beet producer trades 9 units. Based on the above information, Jim will consume 24 units of Jell-O and 21 beets.
Answer 1: 24 Answer 2: 9
23
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Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that reduce information problems? (Mark all that apply)
Non- rival in consumption, Free riders Not Answer: government standards, repeat purchase products
24
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Deliberate control of the money supply and credit conditions can be defined as
monetary policy
25
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Which of the following is a reason aggregate demand slopes downward? (Mark all that apply.)
Which of the following is a characteristic of public goods?
non-rival in consumption, non- excludable
27
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Michael Scott is thinking of spending $8700 on capital that will create $9100 in expected revenue for Dunder Mifflin. The expected rate of return on the investment is %_____.
4.6
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A planned investment is likely to be profitable (thus borrowing will occur) when the ___ interest rate is ___ the expected rate of return.
Real, less than
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In the foreign exchange market, as the exchange rate rises the dollar ___ and the foreign currency ___.
depreciates, appreciates
30
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what explains the difference between the slopes of the short run and long run aggregate supply curves?
In the short run, costs are not fully responsive to changes in the price level due to long-term contracts.
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Pencils (75, 60, 45, 30,15, 0) Staplers (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) Given the above production possibilities, the opportunity cost of the 3rd stables is how many pencils?
15
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Pencils (75, 60, 45, 30,15, 0) Staplers (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) Given the above production possibilities, which of the following statements is TRUE ?
The opportunity cost of producing a stapler is constant as more are produced. The PPF is a downward sloping straight line. Not Answer: The PPF is a downward sloping bowed line. The PPF is an upward sloping bowed line. The opportunity cost of producing a stapler increases as more are produced.
33
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When an unregulated negative externality exists, the marginal social benefit is ___ the marginal social cost, and the socially optimal quantity is ___ the equilibrium quantity.
less than, less than
34
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Which of the following is one of the arguments for trade restrictions?
Anti- Dumping, National Defense
35
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When a lack of competition exists in an industry, the government can improve social welfare by decreasing the monopolist's price to a level near average total cost.
Decreasing, Price
36
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Which of the following is an example of a change in discretionary fiscal policy?
$1 trillion stimulus package passed by Congress in 2009 to combat recession.
37
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In the goods and services market, changes in Y on the horizontal axis imply changes in which of the following variables?
Real GDP, employment
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According to the Classical view, in the goods and services market, when aggregate demand rises in an economy that is currently producing the full employment level of real GDP, in the short run there is excess (DEMAND) at the original equilibrium price level, resulting in a (FALL) in inventories, a ___ in real GDP and a ___ in the price level.
demand, fall, rise, rise
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According to the Classical view, in the goods and services market, when aggregate demand falls in an economy that is currently producing the full employment level of real GDP, in the long run resource prices adjust ___, short run aggregate supply ___ causing a fall in the price level and a rise in real GDP.
downward, increases, fall, rise
40
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Which of the following will cause a decrease in aggregate demand?
a decrease in net export, a decrease in real wealth Not answer: an increase in the expected rate of inflation, a decrease in the real interest rate
41
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Which of the following is NOT a type of unemployment?
Answer: inflationary unemployment Not Answer: structural unemployment, cyclical unemployment
42
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Which of the following is one of the costs of inflation?
Less investment, distorted relative prices
43
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Which of the following would NOT be included in the calculation of GDP?
Answer : goods and services produced by American-Owned firms in foreign countries , Financial transactions Not Answer: final goods, goods and services produced by foreign-owned firms in the United States
44
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Which of the following will cause an increase in short run aggregate supply?
a decrease in resource prices
45
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According to the aggregate expenditure model, which of the following would increase the quantity of investments demanded?
investment is autonomous Not Answer: a decrease in consumption, an increase in consumption, an increase in income, a decrease in income, an increase in government spending
46
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Which of the following would be included in the cost-income approach calculation of GDP?
Net income of foreigners, indirect taxes
47
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According to Keynes, which of the following occurs when aggregate demand decreases?
Y decreases Not Answer: P decreases, SRAS eventually increases
48
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0 – 15 year olds: 630
Working 16 – 65 year olds: 2190
Homemakers: 410
Unemployed 16 – 65 year olds: 110
Incarcerated 18 – 65 year olds: 40
Retirees: 575
The unemployment rate for the above economy is ____%
4.78
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Personal Consumption - $64,218
Personal Saving - $10,520
Indirect Taxes - $6426
Government Spending - $18,734
Private Investment - $26,300
Depreciation - $11,380
Imports - $6240
Exports - $7322
Using the expenditure approach, GDP for the above economy is $______
110,334
50
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Find the MPS for a consumer if an $1800 increase in income causes a $1548 increase in consumption.
0.14
51
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In the goods and services market, when input prices rise in an economy that is currently producing the full employment level of real GDP, in the short run which of the following changes occur? (Mark all that apply)
inventories fall, short run aggregate supply decreases
52
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If the nominal interest rate is 4.14% and the inflation rate is 2.82%, the real interest rate is ___ %
1.28
53
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If a change in equilibrium income of $580 is caused by a chance in autonomous spending of $58, what is the MPC?
0.9
54
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Using the Quantity Theory of Money, if the price level = 1.19, real GDP = 24,000, and the velocity of money = 6, then the money supply is $___
4,760
55
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According to the Classical view of monetary policy, which of the following is a long run effect of an increase in the rate of money supply growth?
the price level rises
56
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Which of the following are hurt by an appreciating U.S. dollar (a fall in e)?
Gross domestic product, U.S. producers of import-competing goods, U.S. producers of Exports
57
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Which of the following could increase the demand for the foreign exchange?
an increase in the domestic inflation rate, an increase in the foreign real interest rate Not Answers: an increase in the domestic real interest rate, a decrease in the domestic inflation rate, an increase in foreign real income
58
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Which of the following is NOT an impact of high tax rates on growth according to supply-side macro theory?
discourages consumption of exports Not Answer: Alters preferences, discourages productivity, discourages investment
59
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In the money market, when the Fed sells bonds, checkable deposits ___, the money supply ___, the nominal interest rate ___ and the public holds ___ money.
decrease, decreases, rises, less
60
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In the loanable funds market, when the Fed sells bonds, banks issue ___ loans, the supply of loanable funds (DECREASES), the real interest rate ___ and the public borrows ___.
fewer, decreases, rises, less
61
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In the foreign exchange market, when the Fed buys bonds, the domestic real interest rate (FALLS), the supply of foreign exchange (DECREASES), the demand for foreign exchange ___ and the exchange rate ___.
falls, decreases, increases, rises
62
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In the goods and services market, when the Fed sells bonds, consumption and investment ___, aggregate demand ___, short run aggregate supply ___ and real GDP (DECREASES)
Decrease, Decrease, Stays the same, decreases
63
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Which of the following will occur when the money supply decreases?
Bond prices fall, the nominal interest rate rises Not Answer: there is excess supply of money, the money supply shifts to the right
64
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When the Fed decreases the discount rate, banking institutions borrow ___, checkable deposits ___, loans (INCREASE), and the money supply (INCREASES).
more, increase, increase, increases
65
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When the Fed increases the interest paid on excess reserves,
the opportunity cost of making loans rises, loans decrease, the money supply decreases
66
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Which of the following Federal Reserve actions will decrease the money supply?
selling bonds on the open market, increasing the reserve ratio, increasing the discount rate Not Answers: decreasing the discount rate, decreasing the reserve ratio, buying bonds on the open market
67
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In the money market, the supply of money is ___ and the demand for money is ___.
perfectly inelastic, downward sloping
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Which of the following is one of the functions of money ?
Medium of exchange, unit of account
69
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A $75 decrease in taxes in an economy with an MPC of 0.875 would cause a change in Y of $_____.
525
70
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in the event of a recessionary GDP gap, the appropriate discretionary fiscal policy solution is to either ___ government spending or ___ taxes, causing the budget deficit to (DECREASE)
increase, decrease, decrease
71
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Bank of Talladega opens its doors and receives an initial deposit of $24,000. the reserve ratio is 6.25%. What is the monetary multiplier?
16
72
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Bank of Talladega opens its doors and receives an initial deposit of $24,000. The reserve ratio is 5%. The maximum checkable deposits that can be created from the bank's initial deposit are $______.
456,000
73
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According to the Quantity Theory of Money, if the inflation rate is 4.5%, the rate of money supply growth is 7.1% and the velocity of money is constant, then the rate of real GDP growth is ____%.
2.6
74
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If the Fed lowers the reserve ratio from 7% to 4%, then a bank that originally possessed $55,800 in excess reserves can create $______ in new money.
1,800
75
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On the foreign exchange market, one dollar trades for 5.18 Brazilian Real or 0.85 British Pounds. A 3000 Pound watch would cost _______ Reals. (Round to the nearest Real)
18,282
76
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When a government deficit is funded through borrowing in private markets, in the loanable funds market, the crowding out effect causes demand to ___ which causes the real interest rate to ___ and private investment to (DECREASE)
increase, rise, decrease
77
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When a government deficit is funded through borrowing in private markets, in the goods and services market, the crowding out effect causes consumption and investment to ___ which causes aggregate ___ to (DECREASE)
decrease, demand, decrease
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When a government deficit is funded through borrowing in private markets, in the foreign exchange market, the crowding out effect causes the ___ of foreign exchange to increase and the ___ of foreign exchange to decrease, causing the dollar to (DEPRECIATE).
supply, demand, (appreciate?)
79
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When a bank possesses $300 in required reserves and $7200 in excess reserves, the reserve ratio is %_____.
4
80
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in the event of an inflationary GDP gap, the appropriate discretionary monetary policy solution is to ___ the money supply so that the real interest rate ___ and money holdings ___.
decrease, rises, decrease
81
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Assume that an economy with MPC = 0.9 and Ye = $420 is in equilibrium and full employment is Yf = $600. State the ∆G0 and ∆T0 that would restore full employment.
Increase taxes by $18 or decrease spending by $20
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You buy a $500 bond that pays a fixed $20 interest payment. If the interest rate falls to 3.75%, the new market value of your bond is $____. (Round to the nearest dollar.)
533
83
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In product markets, households demand goods and services which are supplied by firms in exchange for
money
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In resource markets, firms demand resources which are supplied by households in exchange for
money
85
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Factors that cause Demand to shift (left decrease, right increase)
1) Income : Normal Goods(together), Inferior Goods(opposite) 2) Price of Related Goods: Substitutes (together), Complements (opposite) 3) Expectations of future prices (together) 4) Number of Buyers (ie age demands increase social security) 5)Tastes and Preferences
86
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Law of Supply
the price of a good and the quantity supplied are directly (positively) related
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Factors that Shift Supply Curve
1) Input/Resource Prices (opposite) 2) Technology - improves (increases) 3) Taxes (opposite) 4) Expectations of future Prices (opposite) 5) Number of sellers (enter when high or exit when low)
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Solving for Pe and Qe Qs = 2 + 2p Qd = 20 - 4p
Qs = Qd 2 + 2p = 20 - 4p 6p = 18 Pe = $3 Qe = 2+2(3) = 20 - 4(3) Qe = 8 units
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What happens to the market when a complements price falls?
1) Demand increases 2) Shortage at the old price 3) Pe Rises 4)Qe rises
90
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What happens to the market when the price of an input falls?
1) supply increases 2)surplus at the old price 3) Pe falls 4) Qe rises (exam 1)
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What happens to the market for gas when we expect higher future prices?