IaD Formative Review COMPLETE v2

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538 Terms

1
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What is the mechanism of action of Praziquantel (for Trematodes, Cestodes, Schistosomiasis)?

Increases membrane permeability to Ca²⁺ → contraction and paralysis of parasite

2
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What is the mechanism of action of Albendazole?

Blocks microtubule assembly in parasite; Irreversibly inhibits glucose uptake

3
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What is the mechanism of action of Niclosamide?

Inhibits mitochondrial phosphorylation of ADP; stimulates ATPase → lethal for scolex and segments

4
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What is the mechanism of action of Mebendazole?

Inhibits microtubule synthesis (Blocks assembly and glucose uptake)

5
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What are the treatments for Nematode (Roundworm) infections (where mechanism is not specified)?

Pyrantel pamoate; Ivermectin; Diethylcarbamazine

6
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What is the topical treatment for Cutaneous Larva Migrans?

Thiabendazole

7
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What are the drugs effective against Malaria liver stages?

Primaquine; Pyrimethamine

8
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What is the mechanism of action of Chloroquine (Malaria)?

Blocks detoxification of heme into hemozoin → Heme accumulates and is toxic to plasmodia

9
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What are the drugs effective against Malaria blood stages (excluding Chloroquine)?

Mefloquine; Atovaquone

10
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What is the treatment for resistant Malaria cases?

Artemisinin (Coartem)

11
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What are the prevention methods for Malaria?

Bed nets; Repellents; Screens (Protection from mosquito bites)

12
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What are the treatments for Taeniasis?

Praziquantel (drug of choice); Albendazole; Niclosamide

13
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What is the pharmacological treatment for Cysticercosis?

Praziquantel

14
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What are the adjunctive therapies for Cysticercosis and their functions?

Steroids (relieve inflammation from dead larvae); Vitamin D & Calcium (help calcification)

15
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What is the physical treatment for Cysticercosis?

Surgical treatment

16
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What are the physical treatments for Cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

Surgical excision; Curettage; Heat; Freezing

17
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What are the chemical treatments for Cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

2% Chlorpromazine & Clotrimazole; Paromomycin paste; Intralesional Sodium stibogluconate (Pentostam)

18
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What is the function of Interferon gamma in Cutaneous Leishmaniasis treatment?

Injected intradermally to promote healing of the ulcer

19
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What is the drug of choice for Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)?

Liposomal Amphotericin B

20
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What are the alternative treatments for Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)?

Miltefosine; Sodium stibogluconate (Pentostam)

21
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What is the treatment for Cryptosporidiosis?

Immunocompetent: Fluid/electrolyte replacement; Immunocompromised: Nitazoxanide

22
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What is the mechanism of action of Nucleoside/nucleotide analogues (e.g., AZT/Zidovudine) for HIV?

Inhibits Reverse Transcriptase (RT) / Chain termination (Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis)

23
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What is the mechanism of action of Fusion inhibitors for HIV?

Bind to gp41 preventing fusion of the viral envelope to lymphocytes

24
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What is the mechanism of action of CCR5 antagonists for HIV?

Bind to co-receptors CCR5 on susceptible cells

25
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What is the mechanism of action of Integrase inhibitors for HIV?

Prevent integration of proviral DNA into the host's genome

26
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What is the mechanism of action of Protease inhibitors for HIV?

Interfere with cleavage of proviral polyproteins during budding

27
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What is the mechanism of action of Acyclovir (HSV/VZV)?

Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase / Chain termination

28
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What is the mechanism of action of Ganciclovir (CMV)?

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase (Nucleoside analogue)

29
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What is the mechanism of action of Amantadine (Influenza A)?

Inhibits viral uncoating

30
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What is the mechanism of action of Oseltamivir and Zanamivir (Influenza A & B)?

Neuraminidase inhibitors (Sialic acid analogues)

31
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What is the mechanism of action of Pegylated interferon (IFN) for HCV?

Cytokines which render cells refractory to viral infections

32
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What is the mechanism of action of Sofosbuvir (HCV)?

Nucleos(t)ide analogue that inhibits RNA elongation (NS5B Polymerase inhibitor)

33
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What is the mechanism of action of Dasabuvir (HCV)?

Non-Nucleos(t)ide analogue; binds allosterically and inhibits NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

34
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What is the mechanism of action of Simeprevir, Boceprevir, and Telaprevir (HCV)?

NS3/4A protease inhibitors (Inhibition of HCV Polyprotein processing)

35
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What is the mechanism of action of Daclatasvir (HCV)?

NS5A inhibitor (Inhibition of viral assembly and release)

36
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What is the treatment for Streptococcal Pharyngitis?

Penicillin

37
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What are the treatments for Pityriasis Versicolor?

Topical: Miconazole or Clotrimazole; Systemic: Fluconazole or Itraconazole

38
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What is the mechanism of action of Corticosteroids for Allergy?

Suppress transcription of proinflammatory genes

39
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What is the mechanism of action of Sodium chromoglycate for Allergy?

Blocks mediator release from mast cells

40
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What is the mechanism of action of Montelukast for Allergy?

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

41
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What is the mechanism of action of Omalizumab for Allergy?

Anti-IgE mAb (↓ IgE & ↓ FcεRI)

42
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What is the mechanism of resistance to Penicillins and Cephalosporins?

Inactivation by β-lactamases (Hydrolysis of the beta-lactam ring) or Target PBP alteration

43
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What is the mechanism of resistance to Macrolides?

Target 50S ribosomal subunit alteration

44
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What is the mechanism of resistance to Aminoglycosides?

Target 30S ribosomal subunit alteration

45
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What is the mechanism of resistance to Flucloxacillin?

Target PBP2a alteration

46
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What is the mechanism of resistance to Rifampicin?

Target Rpob alteration

47
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What is the mechanism of resistance to Trimethoprim?

Folate biosynthesis bypass

48
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What is the treatment for Motion Sickness?

H1 antihistamines (First-generation)

49
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What is the vector for Malaria (Plasmodium species)?

Female Anopheles mosquito

50
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Which Plasmodium species causes Malignant Tertian malaria and is the most fatal?

P. falciparum

51
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What is the "Red Flag" complication known as Blackwater Fever associated with?

Massive hemolysis leading to hemoglobinuria (P. falciparum)

52
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Which Plasmodium species is associated with Cerebral Malaria?

P. falciparum

53
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What is the microscopic appearance of P. falciparum gametocytes?

Sausage or Banana-shaped

<p>Sausage or Banana-shaped</p>
54
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What is the "Red Flag" microscopic feature of P. falciparum ring stages?

Multiple Ring stages in one RBC

<p>Multiple Ring stages in one RBC</p>
55
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Which Plasmodium species cause Benign Tertian malaria?

P. vivax & P. ovale

56
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What is the specific cause of relapse in P. vivax and P. ovale infections?

Dormant Hypnozoites in the liver

57
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What is the microscopic appearance of RBCs infected with P. vivax?

Enlarged RBCs with "Schüffner's dots" (red granules)

<p>Enlarged RBCs with "Schüffner's dots" (red granules)</p>
58
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Which Plasmodium species is associated with Nephrotic Syndrome (Quartan malaria)?

P. malariae

59
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What is the microscopic appearance of P. malariae trophozoites?

"Band form" trophozoites

<p>"Band form" trophozoites</p>
60
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What is the Infective Stage of Plasmodium for humans?

Sporozoites (injected by mosquito)

61
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What is the Diagnostic Stage of Plasmodium in humans?

Trophozoites, Schizonts, or Gametocytes (in blood)

62
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What is the Gold Standard for diagnosing Malaria?

Thick & Thin Blood Smear (Giemsa stain)

63
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What is the specific purpose of the Thick Blood Smear in malaria diagnosis?

Detection of parasitemia

64
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What is the specific purpose of the Thin Blood Smear in malaria diagnosis?

Species identification

65
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What is the standard treatment for P. falciparum malaria?

Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT)

66
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What drug is required to kill liver Hypnozoites in P. vivax/ovale to prevent relapse?

Primaquine

67
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What is the major contraindication for Primaquine?

G6PD deficiency

68
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What is the vector for Leishmaniasis?

Female Sand fly (Phlebotomus)

<p>Female Sand fly (Phlebotomus)</p>
69
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What is the Infective Stage of Leishmania (found in the sand fly)?

Promastigote (Flagellated)

<p>Promastigote (Flagellated)</p>
70
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What is the Diagnostic Stage of Leishmania (found in human macrophages)?

Amastigote (LD Body, Non-flagellated)

<p>Amastigote (LD Body, Non-flagellated)</p>
71
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Which Leishmania species cause Cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

L. tropica / L. major

72
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What is the classic clinical sign of Cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

"Oriental Sore" (painless ulcer with raised edges)

<p>"Oriental Sore" (painless ulcer with raised edges)</p>
73
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How is Cutaneous Leishmaniasis diagnosed?

Skin smear from ulcer edge showing Amastigotes inside macrophages

74
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Which Leishmania species cause Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)?

L. donovani / L. infantum

75
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What are the "Red Flag" signs of Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)?

Hepatosplenomegaly (massive spleen), irregular "double rise" fever, pancytopenia, hyperpigmentation

76
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What is the Gold Standard diagnosis for Visceral Leishmaniasis?

Bone Marrow Aspirate showing Amastigotes

77
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What is the treatment for Leishmaniasis?

Sodium Stibogluconate (Pentostam) or Liposomal Amphotericin B

78
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Which opportunistic protozoan causes severe diarrhea in HIV/AIDS patients (CD4 < 200)?

Cryptosporidium parvum

79
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What is the clinical presentation of Cryptosporidium in AIDS patients?

Chronic, profuse, watery diarrhea (cholera-like)

80
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What specific stain is used to diagnose Cryptosporidium?

Modified Ziehl-Neelsen (Acid-Fast) Stain

81
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What is the microscopic appearance of Cryptosporidium with Acid-Fast stain?

Red/Pink Oocysts against a blue background

<p>Red/Pink Oocysts against a blue background</p>
82
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Why is Cryptosporidium difficult to eliminate from water supplies?

It is resistant to chlorine

83
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What is the intermediate host for Schistosoma mansoni?

Biomphalaria snail

<p>Biomphalaria snail</p>
84
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What is the intermediate host for Schistosoma haematobium?

Bulinus snail

<p>Bulinus snail</p>
85
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What is the Infective Stage of Schistosoma?

Cercaria (penetrates skin)

<p>Cercaria (penetrates skin)</p>
86
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What causes the pathogenesis (granuloma and fibrosis) in Schistosomiasis?

The EGGS trapped in tissues (Type IV Hypersensitivity)

87
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What is the microscopic appearance of Schistosoma haematobium eggs?

Terminal Spine

<p>Terminal Spine</p>
88
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What clinical sample is used to diagnose Schistosoma haematobium?

Urine

89
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What are the "Red Flag" complications of Schistosoma haematobium?

Terminal Hematuria and Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Bladder

90
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What is the microscopic appearance of Schistosoma mansoni eggs?

Lateral Spine

<p>Lateral Spine</p>
91
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What clinical sample is used to diagnose Schistosoma mansoni?

Stool

92
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What are the clinical complications of Schistosoma mansoni?

Portal Hypertension, Esophageal Varices, Hepatosplenomegaly

93
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What is the treatment for all Schistosoma species?

Praziquantel

94
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What is the intermediate host for Taenia saginata (Beef Tapeworm)?

Cattle

95
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What is the intermediate host for Taenia solium (Pork Tapeworm)?

Pig

96
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How do humans acquire intestinal Taeniasis (adult worm)?

Eating undercooked Beef (T. saginata) or Pork (T. solium) containing cysticerci

97
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How do humans acquire Cysticercosis/Neurocysticercosis?

Ingesting Taenia solium EGGS (fecal-oral or autoinfection)

98
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Which Taenia species causes Neurocysticercosis?

Taenia solium

99
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What is the "Red Flag" clinical presentation of Neurocysticercosis?

Seizures/Epilepsy ("Swiss cheese" brain on CT)

100
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How do you distinguish T. saginata from T. solium based on gravid segments?

T. saginata has >15 uterine branches; T. solium has <13 uterine branches

<p>T. saginata has &gt;15 uterine branches; T. solium has &lt;13 uterine branches</p>