Exam 2 Human Anatomy and Physiology 1

Bone is the most important storehouse in the body for __________.

calcium

Bones with a diaphysis and epiphyses are classified as __________

long bones

Bone growth in length occurs at the epiphyseal plate in __________.

long bones

The function of the yellow bone marrow is

triglyceride storage

Whose bone marrow is mostly red?

Infants

Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?

Osteoclast

The structural units of mature compact bone are called

Osteons

Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the __________.

diaphysis

Within the epiphyseal plate, which zone houses actively dividing cartilage cells in their lacunae?

zone of proliferation

Which of the following promotes bone resorption?

pressure

Which hormone, produced by the thyroid gland, works opposite to parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

calcitonin

How long does bone repair generally take?

6-8 weeks

Charlie has a break in the shaft of his thigh bone. He broke the __________.

diaphysis

Correctly order the following key steps in the process of endochondral ossification.

1. Chondrocytes die.

2. Osteoblasts build the bone collar on the external surface of the bone.

3. Perichondrium is invaded by blood vessels.

4. In the primary ossification center, osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with early spongy bone.

5. Perichondrial cells differentiate into osteogenic cells then into osteoblasts.

3, 5, 2, 1, 4

For a person who starts running for exercise, __________.

bone deposition exceeds bone resorption

Which bone marking provides a site where bones articulate or to which ligaments and tendons attach?

projection

Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone?

zygomatic bone

What bones meet at the lambdoid suture?

the occipital bone and parietal bones

Which bones house teeth

mandible and maxillary bone

How many lumbar vertebrae exist in the vertebral column?

5

The weight-bearing structure of a vertebra is the __________.

body

What part of the scapula articulates with the clavicle?

acromion

What bones form the forearm (antebrachium)?

ulna and radius

What part of each metacarpal forms the "knuckle" of your hand?

head

Which part of the coxal bone articulates with the sacrum?

ilium

The distal end of the fibula articulates with the __________.

talus

Which prominent arch runs along the medial side of the foot from the calcaneus to metatarsals I-III?

medial longitudinal arch

Geri has pain behind her ear lobe and was diagnosed with mastoiditis. Which bone is affected?

temporal bone

From proximal to distal, what bones form the upper limb?

1. carpals

2. humerus

3. metacarpals

4. phalanges

5. ulna and radius

2, 5, 1, 3, 4

Craniostenosis is the premature fusion of one or more skull sutures in an infant. Predict what problem may arise if the skull sutures prematurely ossify during infancy.

the bones of the skull may be deformed and brain development can be restricted when skull sutures prematurely close

Functionally, how are cartilaginous joints classified?

synarthroses and amphiathroses

Which of the following is/are classified as fibrous joints?

sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

What best describes cartilaginous joints?

little, if any, motion

Which of the following cartilaginous joints is found only in young, growing people?

epiphyseal plate

What feature is NOT part of the synovial joint?

tendon sheath

Which statement best describes a bursa?

a bursa is a synovial fluid-filed structure lined with synovial membrane on its. inner surface

Where would a gliding movement most likely occur?

between the intercarpal joints of the wrist

Which movement opposes adduction

abduction

What movement decreases the angle between the foot and tibia as the toes are pulled up toward the head?

dorsiflexion

Which type of synovial joint is the simplest and least mobile?

plane joint

What movement would you expect to see in a pivot joint?

rotation

In the knee joint, the medial meniscus is __________.

fibrocartilage

Which of the following best represents the functional classifications of joints ranked from least movable to most movable?

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

A ballerina who stands on the tips of her toes is performing __________.

plantar flexion

The anterior cruciate ligament anchors the tibia bone to __________.

another bone

Muscles with a triangular shape, such as the pectoralis major muscle in the chest, typically have a __________.

convergent fascicle arrangement

What can you tell about a muscle whose name includes the word serratus?

its appearance is serrated or jagged

Where is the origin of the frontalis muscle?

epicranial aponeurosis

Which muscle works as an antagonist to orbicularis oculi?

levator palpebrae superioris

What is NOT a bone to which the sternocleidomastoid muscle is attached?

mandible

Which of the following is NOT a muscle involved in the movement of the tongue to manipulate food while chewing and pushing the bolus of food into the throat?

stylohyoid

Which of the following is NOT a muscle of respiration?

external oblique

The levator ani inserts on the __________.

coccyx

The deltoid is responsible for __________.

abducting the arm

Which of the following muscles extends the knee?

rectus femoris

Which muscle is an antagonist to the gastrocnemius muscle?

tibialis anterior

A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the __________.

tibialis anterior

Triceps brachii and biceps brachii perform opposing actions and are classified as __________.

antagonists

From medial to lateral, what are the muscles of the hamstring group?

semimembranosus, semitendionsus, biceps femoris

John experienced a cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the gastrocnemius muscle. As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for him to perform?

plantar flexion

The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is known as the __________.

sacrolemma

Deep inward extensions of the sarcolemma form a tunnel-like network inside the muscle cell known as __________.

transverse tubules (T-tubules)

Which of the following wraps and surrounds an individual skeletal muscle fiber?

endomysium

What is the functional contractile unit of the myofibril?

sacromere

Where are receptors for acetylcholine located?

motor end plate

During muscle contraction, myosin crossbridges bind to active sites on __________.

actin filaments

The main immediate source of ATP as muscle contractions begin comes from __________.

creatine phosphate

Type I fibers lack __________.

speed

The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called __________.

recruitment

What type of contraction requires the greatest amount of tension?

isotonic eccentric contraction

Larry’s muscles weakened while he played tennis for hours on a hot summer afternoon. This inability to maintain intensity is defined as __________.

muscle fatigue

During the recovery period after exercise, we breathe deeper and faster. This increased rate of respiration is known as __________.

excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, __________.

the H zone and I bands narrow

Latrotoxin, produced by the poisonous black widow spider, increases the release of acetylcholine. How do muscle cells respond?

muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists

What do skeletal muscle contractions share in common with smooth muscle contractions?

both types of contractions results from thick and thin filaments sliding past one another