Pharmacology Final - (shelbs)

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/228

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

229 Terms

1
New cards

Quiz 1 - Chapters 1/2/3

complete

2
New cards

Nutritional or herbal supplements

can cause adverse effects

3
New cards

Which of the following is true concerning generic and trade names of drugs?

A drug may only have one generic name, but it may have several trade names.

4
New cards

Two drug formulations that produce similar concentrations in the blood and tissues after drug administration are termed ___ equivalent.

biologically

5
New cards

Which federal regulatory agency decides which drugs require a prescription in which may be sold over-the-counter?

FDA

6
New cards

The head of a prescription contains the following information except the

Date of birth of the prescriber

7
New cards

Drugs of a greater potency do not require as high a dose to have an effect. T or F?

True

8
New cards

When a drug has affinity for a receptor and produces no effect, it is called a(n)

competitive antagonist

9
New cards

Which of the following is not a subject of Pharmokinetics?

Physiologic action of drugs

10
New cards

Which of the following choices is the process by which a substance is transported against a concentration gradient?

Active transport

11
New cards

Drugs that are weak electrolytes will cross body membranes best when they are (1) non-ionized, (2) ionized, (3) polar, (4) non-polar, (5) lipid soluble, (6) water soluble

1, 4, 6

12
New cards

Increasing the pH of a solution will cause a greater percentage of a weak base and the solution to be in the unionized form. T or F?

True

13
New cards

Quiz 2 - Chapter 4

complete

14
New cards

Which of the following statements is true regarding the therapeutic index (TI) of a drug?

TI is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose

15
New cards

The half-life of a drug is most related to its

duration

16
New cards

Advantages of oral administration of a drug include all the following except

more predictable response than intravenous administration

17
New cards

A drug administered orally passes through the ____ before it goes into systemic circulation. This phenomenon is termed ___ and may cause (activation/inactivation) of some drugs.

liver;

1st pass effect; inactivation

18
New cards

A drug effect that is neither predictable nor dose related is called a

drug allergy

19
New cards

Immune-complex disease reaction are aggregations of antibodies and

antigens

20
New cards

An acute, life-threating allergic reaction characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, and cardiac arrythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?

Type I

21
New cards

Which hypersensitivity reaction is termed delayed-type hypersensitivity and is mediated by sensitized T lymphocytes and macrophages?

Type IV

22
New cards

Although drug A and drug B have the same ED 50, drug B has a wider therapeutic index (TI), therefore, drug A has a greater LD50 than drug B.

The first statement is true, the second is false.

23
New cards

Tetracycline, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and benzodiazepines are safe to administer to a pregnant patient

False

24
New cards

The greater the therapeutic index is, the greater the toxicity will be

False

Explanation: The therapeutic index is the ratio of the LD50 to ED50. The smaller the ratio is, the closer the LD50 is to the ED50 and therefore the closer a deadly dose is to the therapeutic dose. Consequently, the lesser the therapeutic index is, the greater the toxicity will be.

25
New cards

In the autonomic nervous system (ANS) the target organ is innervated by the ___ neuron

postganglionic efferent

26
New cards

When the SANS is stimulated, the adrenal _____ releases primarily _____ into the systemic circulation.

medulla; epinephrine

27
New cards

To direct affect of acetylcholine on the heart is___ chronotropic, and ___ inotropic action

Negative; negative

28
New cards

The acronym ___ denotes adverse reactions associated with administration of adrenergic agents. The full name for the acronym is...

SLUD ; salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation

29
New cards

Which of the following conditions is not a relative contraindication or caution with the use of cholinergic agents?

Hypothyroidism

30
New cards

Ipratromium is a(n) ___ found in an inhaler used to treat asthma

Anticholinergic

31
New cards

What are the effects of the a-Adrenergic receptor on:

Blood vessels:

Heat Rate:

Pupil of the eye:

vasoconstriction; increase;

dilate

32
New cards

Stimulation of the B2-Adrenergic receptors result in

Smooth-muscle relaxation

33
New cards

Sympathomimetic agents will stimulate cellular flow from which of the following salivary glands (1) parotid, (2) submandibular, (3) sublingual

2, 3

34
New cards

Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter of the

Postganglionic nerve of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

35
New cards

Quiz 3 - Chapters 5/6

complete

36
New cards

The mechanism of action of non-opioid analgesic is due to

Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

37
New cards

Non-opioid analgesic act primarily at the peripheral nerve endings, although their antipyretic effect is mediated centrally.

Both statements are true

38
New cards

Which non-opioid is the best to use in pediatric patients for both Its analgesic and antipyretic action?

Acetaminophen

39
New cards

Which of the following drugs can be substituted for aspirin in patient's displaying the aspirin hypersensitivity triad

Codeine

40
New cards

Aspirin toxicity is called ___. List 3 characteristics of aspirin toxicity

Salicylism; tinnitus, headache, hyperventilation

41
New cards

Which of the following is true concerning NSAIDs

Many prescribers agree that the NSAIDs are the most useful drug group for the treatment of dental pain.

42
New cards

Which of the following NSAIDs is the drug of choice for treating a nursing woman?

Ibuprofen

43
New cards

Which of the following statements is true of COX II?

It is synthesized only where inflammation occurs

44
New cards

Acetaminophen does not possess any of these clinically significant ___ effects (1) antipyretic, (2) anti inflammatory (3) analgesic

(2) antiinflammatory

45
New cards

Which of the following agents is intended to acute attack of gout?

Colchicine

46
New cards

Which drug is a biological response modifier used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

Rituximab (Rituxan)

47
New cards

What do aspirin, acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and codeine have in common?

They are all analgesic.

48
New cards

Which opioid is commonly used as an antitussive?

Codeine

49
New cards

__ is the most common cause of death with an overdose of opioid analgesics

Respiratory Depression

50
New cards

Which is an advantage of the nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drug (NSAIDs) over the opioids for the management of dental pain in an opioid addict?

They are not addictive

51
New cards

Tolerance occurs to all of the effects of opioids except ___ and ___

Miosis; constipation

52
New cards

Which of the following agents is potent, short-acting, parenterally administered opioid that is commonly used during general anesthesia?

Fentanyl

53
New cards

Which is the drug of choice to treat a patient who has taken an overdose of an opioid

Naloxone

54
New cards

Tramadol binds to mu opioid receptors. T or F?

True

55
New cards

Quiz 4 - Chapters 7/8

complete

56
New cards

Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for an early dental infection unless the patient is all allergic to it

Penicillin

57
New cards

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with pseudomembranous colitis

Clindamycin

58
New cards

Which of the following anti-infective agents is bacteriostatic, but may be bacteriocidal at higher dose levels?

Erythromycin

59
New cards

The possibility of superinfection can be minimized by use of the _____ specific antiinfective agent, the _____ effective course of therapy, and adequate doses.

Most; shortest

60
New cards

Which of the following periodontal diseases is usually not treated with antimicrobials

Adult periodontitis

61
New cards

Antiinfective agents can potentiate the effect of oral anticoagulants by interfering with the production of vitamin

K

62
New cards

Which of the following antibiotics are not associated with any teratogenicity and are often used in pregnant women?

D. Both A and C

63
New cards

The usual adult dose of penicillin V for treatment of an infection is?

250-500 mg four times a day (qid)

64
New cards

Which of the following statements is true of the cephalosporins?

Their mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

65
New cards

Azithromycin and chlorithromycin

May be used as alternative antibiotics for the prophylaxis of endocarditis and prosthetic joint infections

66
New cards

An erythematous rash on the face and upper body known as red man syndrome is associated with the use of which of the following antimicrobial agents

Vancomycin

67
New cards

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is associated with ototoxicity

Aminoglycosides

68
New cards

Which of the following antibiotics would be the best choice to attack the anaerobes in a stage 2 infection (mixed infection)

Clindamycin or metronidazole

69
New cards

Rupture of the Achilles tendon is associated with the use of

Quinolones

70
New cards

Tetracycline antibiotics are associated with development of ___ inpatient with dentures

Candidiasis

71
New cards

Which of the following agents has poor oral absorption?

Nystatin

72
New cards

All of the following are antifungal agents that are useful in dentistry except

docosanol

73
New cards

Topical acyclovir:

does not prevent the recurrence of herpes labialis.

74
New cards

Which of the following statements is true of zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir)

B. The toxicity of zidovudine is related to bone marrow depression.

75
New cards

What is integrase in the context of infection with human immunodeficiency virus?

It is a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

76
New cards

The most common FDA approved use of interference is the treatment of which of the following (select all that apply.)

Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C

77
New cards

Quiz 5 - Chapter 9

complete

78
New cards

Which is the primary adverse reaction associated with the use of benzodiazepines for conscious sedation?

respiratory depression

79
New cards

Benzodiazepines, enhance or facilitate the action of the neurotransmitter

γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

80
New cards

The therapeutic index of benzodiazepines is ___ that of the barbiturates

wider than

81
New cards

The benzodiazepines are preferable to the barbiturates as hypnotics because the risk of physical addiction or serious poisoning is much less

True

82
New cards

Chronic use of barbiturates can lead to _____ dependence.

both physical and psychologic

83
New cards

Which of the following agents are the most commonly prescribed type of anti-anxiety drugs?

Benzodiazepines

84
New cards

The use of barbiturates is absolutely contraindicated in patients with a positive family history of

Porphyria

85
New cards

Which of the following agents is a melatonin receptor agonist

Ramelteon

86
New cards

A sedative hypnotic agent can produce varying degrees of central nervous system depression. The same drug may be either a sedative or a hypnotic.

Both statements are true

87
New cards

Each of the following is true of melatonin, except one. Which is the exception.

Melatonin is a scheduled drug that requires a prescription.

88
New cards

Suvorexant (Belsomra) works by

blocking orexin neuropeptides from binding to their receptors.

89
New cards

Which of the following statements are true concerning administration of benzodiazepines and pregnancy? (Select all that apply)

Both A and C

90
New cards

Sedatives may induce excitation when given without an analgesic to patient with uncontrolled pain

True

91
New cards

Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in wide angle glaucoma

False

92
New cards

Sedatives potential analgesic agents

True

93
New cards

Quiz 6 - Chapters 10/11

complete

94
New cards

The mechanism of local anesthetic involves action on

Both B and C

95
New cards

In the presence of an acidic environment, such as infection or inflammation, the amount of free base is reduced; therefore __________ of the local anesthetic is in the ionized form, making anesthesia __________ difficult.

more; more

96
New cards

local anesthetics cross

The placenta and blood-brain barrier

97
New cards

Which nerve function is the most sensitive to inhibition by local anesthetic agents

Autonomic

98
New cards

Which of the following local anesthetics is safer to use for the dental treatment for pregnant woman?

Lidocaine

99
New cards

Which of the following statements is true of mepivicaine?

Mepivicaine can be used as 3% solution without a vasoconstrictor

100
New cards

Several cases of methemoglobinema have been reported after the use of

Prilocaine