(USE SECOND) youtubegod69 Forensic PSY ch. 5, 6, 7, 8

Competency to stand trial and competency to plea bargain are examples of ______ competencies. A. institutional B. dual-purpose C. sanity D. adjudicative

D

Which term is synonymous with sanity evaluation? A. competency assessment B. criminal responsibility evaluation C. risk assessment D. forensic amenability evaluation

B

The chapter focuses on which three areas of forensic assessment?

A. competency to stand trial, competency to waive one's rights, and competency to serve as one's own lawyer

B. psychiatry, psychology, and social work

C. competency, insanity, and sentencing

D. restoration, restitution, and reestablishment

C

In Godinez v. Moran (1993), the Supreme Court ruled that the Dusky standards also apply to ______.

A. guilty pleas

B. pre-arraignment proceedings

C. waivers

D. parole hearings

A

The two-pronged Dusky standard specifies that a defendant must not only understand what is happening but also be ______. A. agreeable to waiving his or her rights B. represented by a competent attorney C. able to assist in his or her own defense D. undergoing restorative treatment

C

Which high-profile defendant suffered from a paranoid personality disorder, was competent to stand trial, and had a trial considered an embarrassment to the justice system? A. Stephen Raucci B. Ted Bundy C. O.J. Simpson D. Colin Ferguson

D

According to the text, outpatient ______ is more common than outpatient ______. A. evaluation; treatment B. therapy; medication C. hospitalization; sentencing D. referrals; assessments

A

Which standard of proof is required in all criminal proceedings? A. beyond a reasonable doubt B. the Daubert standard C. preponderance of the evidence D. clear and convincing evidence

A

Who gets the report when a defense attorney requests a competency evaluation for his or her client? A. the defense attorney B. the judge C. the prosecutor D. all parties

A

Which disorder is the predominant diagnosis of individuals found incompetent to stand trial? A. narcolepsy B. schizophrenia C. depression D. psychopathy

B

Restoration to competency for an individual found incompetent to stand trial should focus not only on decisional capacities but also on ______. A. improving one's physical health B. education about the legal system C. medication compliance D. family support

B

The most common method of restoring competence in defendants is ______. A. a combination of medication and therapy B. community-based treatment C. a combination of electroconvulsive therapy and antidepressants D. involuntary civil commitment for at least 6 months

A

Which statement is true about the insanity defense? A. It is allowed in all 50 states. B. It is allowed in a majority of states. C. It is allowed in two states. D. It is not allowed in the United States.

B

Sanity refers to mental state ______, whereas competency refers to mental state ______. A. at sentencing; during pretrial B. at the time of criminal justice proceedings; at the time of crime C. at the time of crime; at the time of criminal justice proceedings D. during the evaluation; during the trial

B

Research suggests that insanity cases are often decided on ______ grounds. A. legal B. moral C. psychiatric D. sacred

B

Research has shown that defendants who plead not guilty by reason of insanity comprise ______ of criminal cases. A. 1-3% B. 5-7% C. 13-15% D. 23-25%

A

Some states allow judge and jurors an alternative to NGRI. This middle ground verdict is called ______. A. innocent but culpable B. guilty but mentally ill C. guilty but insane D. innocent but unstable

B

The R-CRAS is a forensic instrument used for assessing ______. A. adjudicative competence B. criminal responsibility C. cognitive functioning D. competence to plead guilty

B

What is the most frequent outcome for those found NGRI? A. The defendant is sent home under house arrest. B. The defendant is hospitalized. C. The defendant is sent home with case management services. D. The defendant is set free.

B

The law states that an individual found NGRI cannot be held solely based on dangerousness if there is no longer evidence of mental illness. Which group is the exception? A. serial killers B. sexually violent predators C. law enforcement personnel D. juvenile delinquents

B

Which type of sentencing attempts to make the punishment fit the crime? A. dominant B. determinant C. intermittent D. indeterminate

B

Historically, criminal sentencing was based on the ______ model of corrections. A. punitive B. progressive C. reactive D. rehabilitative

D

Which individual would be eligible for the death penalty?

A. a juvenile sex offender who is under age 18

B. a 36-year-old female who is intellectually disabled

C. a female business owner who stabs her husband to death

D. a male serial rapist whose victims are all alive

C

Death penalty mitigation refers to ______. A. absolving one of guilt B. rendering a crime heinous C. ensuring a defendant receives the death penalty D. reducing one's sentence in order to avoid the death penalty

D

All of the following are laws designed to address the problems associated with sex offending EXCEPT ______. A. the Adam Walsh Child Protection and Safety Act B. Megan's Law C. Amber Alert D. the Gonzaga Law

D

Which Supreme Court ruling is an example of a sexually violent predator statute?

A. Kansas v. Hendricks

B. Loving v. Virginia

C. Mapp v. Ohio

D. Betts v. Brady

A

Which of the following describes a concern with sex offender typologies? A. They are not useful in clinical practice. B. They are often too broad to be useful. C. They have not received empirical support. D. They are used primarily by psychiatrists.

C

In regard to risk assessment, both the ethical code of the APA and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology state that psychologists should ______. A. not use risk assessment instruments to evaluate sex offenders B. use only validated risk assessment instruments to evaluate sex offenders C. not participate in death penalty sentencing of sex offenders D. use only clinical data when communicating their findings

B

Civil commitment of sexually violent predators requires evidence of mental ______. A. disorder B. abnormality C. disability D. disease

B

Which statement is true about civil commitment of sexually violent predators? A. It is allowed in every state but not the federal government. B. It is a strategy that is supported by most psychologists. C. It is a valid treatment option available in all states. D. It is increasing in numbers across the United States.

D

Imagine you are a psychologist who is conducting a psychosexual assessment on a convicted sex offender. Which of the following should you refrain from including in your report to the court? A. a sadistic rapist classification B. results of a validated risk assessment C. treatment recommendations D. background information on the offender

A

Which of the following is least likely to be considered a mitigating factor at the sentencing stage in a death penalty case? A. evidence of PTSD B. age of the offender C. gender of the offender D. history of abuse by parents

C

What is the primary concern with the GBMI verdict? A. It does not guarantee treatment for the mentally ill individual. B. It absolves a defendant of criminal responsibility. C. It helps the defendant avoid a prison term. D. It requires expensive modifications to the court system.

A

Forensic psychologists are generally advised not to include ______ in their competency reports.

A. the defendant's age

B. suggestions for restoring competency

C. diagnoses

D. results of assessment instruments

C

Which U.S. Supreme Court case dealt with the forced medication of incompetent defendants?

A. Loughner v. U.S.

B. Sell v. U.S.

C. Colorado v. Connelly 4

D. Arizona v. Dusky

B

Reports of competency evaluations should include all of the following EXCEPT ______. A. the purpose of the evaluation B. details about the crime itself C. background information about the defendant D. scores on psychological measures

B

The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that the standard for determining competency to stand trial applies to all of the following EXCEPT ______.

A. pretrial proceedings

B. proceedings before a person was indicted

C. habeas corpus proceedings

D. competency to plead guilty

C

In the typical criminal case where competency is in question, ______. A. at least three competency evaluations are performed B. at least two evaluations are conducted by different clinicians C. the judge agrees with the recommendation made by the clinician D. the offender is released while the assessment is being conducted

C

Which federal law sets the standard for determining insanity in federal courts? A. the IDRA B. the Durham Rule C. the EEDIA D. the Dusky Rule

A

When assessing risk in sexually violent predators, it is important for clinicians to be aware that ______.

A. the majority of SVPs are also substance abusers

B. the majority of SVPs have been falsely accused

C. comorbid mental disorders are rare in this population

D. treatment may not be provided once the individual is civilly committed

D

Which of the following is a commonality among all insanity standards? A. a documented mental disorder B. the ability to understand right and wrong C. the presence of a guilty mind D. a capacity to follow the law

A

Evaluations in which a clinician evaluates a defendant's competency to stand trial and criminal responsibility at the same time are called ______. A. insanity standards B. dual-purpose evaluations C. criminal responsibility screenings D. product tests

B

Research indicates that ______ are more sympathetic to the insanity defense than are ______. A. psychologists; psychiatrists B. psychiatrists; psychologists C. judges; juries D. juries; judges

C

Which of the following illustrates a misconception that jurors have about the insanity defense? A. the belief that medication does not effectively treat mental illness B. the belief that all assessment instruments have been validated through a series of empirical studies C. the belief that defendants found NGRI go free D. the belief that defendants have no remorse for their crimes

C

In which year was the death penalty reinstituted in the United States? A. 1976 B. 1987 C. 1994 D. 2001

A

Once a defendant is medicated and rendered competent to stand trial, medication during the trial is often unnecessary

F

Most types of forensic mental health assessments require an appraisal of malingering.

T

Restoration to competency must be done in an institution.

F

Most clinicians regard the evaluation of criminal responsibility as a complex issue.

T

Research suggests that the inclusion of a clinically diagnosed mental disorder is a strong predictor of a finding of incompetence.

T

Persons who are conditionally released are less likely than convicted offenders to commit new crimes.

T

Rehabilitation is the dominant concern in determinate sentencing.

F

The U.S. Constitution requires judges to consider mitigating factors in capital cases.

T

A diagnosis of psychopathy is considered a mitigating factor in capital sentencing.

F

A 17-year-old offender is not eligible for the death penalty.

T

Research has found that many sex offenders do not suffer from a mental disorder.

T

In United States v. Comstock, 2010, the Supreme Court ruled that the federal government could not hold violent sexual offenders beyond their prison sentence if they were mentally ill.

F

Most modern psychoactive medications have few side effects.

F

Changes in the federal and state laws have made it more difficult for defendants pleading not guilty by reason of insanity to win acquittal.

T

Immigration deportation proceedings do not carry a right to legal representation.

T

What do Theodore Kaczynski and Colin Ferguson have in common? How does Indiana v. Edwards (2008) pertain to both men?

Both were high-profile criminal cases that led scholars to question the wisdom of allowing criminal defendants who are presumably mentally disordered to take such an approach. Years after both cases, in Indiana v. Edwards (2008), the Supreme Court ruled that a defendant who was competent to stand trial was not necessarily competent to serve as his own lawyer. A judge can deny the request of a defendant who wants to serve as his own lawyer, but who is clearly mentally disordered but still competent to stand trial.

List three reasons why competency evaluations are so common.

Competency evaluations can occur at many different stages of the criminal process. Some defendants are reevaluated after years because they are charged with additional crimes. The evaluation process has been made simpler due to the development of competency assessment instruments and increased training.

Explain SVPs and discuss concerns associated with them.

SVPs are sexually violent predator statutes that allow for the commitment of violent sex offenders to mental institutions for indeterminate periods, against their will, after they have completed their prison sentences. The Supreme Court has allowed civil commitment of sex offenders; however, there have been many issues raised about ethics. For example, most state statutes don't guarantee treatment and commitment seems to result in very lengthy confinement. Involuntary commitment is exceedingly expensive. Concerns with risk assessment also apply to the civil commitment of SVPs. The American Psychiatric Association has publicly denounced the practice of civil commitment for sex offenders; however, the American Psychological Association has taken no position on the practice and evaluations of civil involuntary commitments of sex offenders.

Compare and contrast restoration to competency in an outpatient and inpatient setting.

This is usually achieved through the administration of psychotropic medications. Defendants are typically admitted to state psychiatric hospitals and are kept institutionalized as long as some progress is being made. Research suggests that competency restoration in the community is effective, cost efficient, and less likely to fail compared to inpatient restoration.

Why is guilty but mentally ill a controversial verdict? What does this verdict often mean for defendants?

Guilty but mentally ill allows judges and jurors a middle ground, supposedly reconciling their belief that the defendant "did it" with their belief that he or she "needs help." It makes little difference in the life of the person who obtains this verdict, however. Defendants found guilty but mentally ill are still sent to prison and—on the whole—are no more likely to receive specialized treatment for their disorder than other imprisoned offenders.

Define malingering.

Malingering is a response style in which the individual consciously fabricates or grossly exaggerates his or her symptoms.

Describe what is involved in a psychosexual assessment. Include the reasons why clinicians are discouraged from using a typology to label a sex offender in a written report.

Psychosexual assessments are typically very broad based and include test results, observations, risk assessments, and recommendations for treatment and for managing any risk believed to be posed by the offender. Clinicians are discouraged from using typologies in their reports because of the negative consequences associated with these labels. The typologies have little validity and unjustly confine an offender or limit his opportunities for programs or early release.

Why do you think some psychologists have moral objections to participating in a death penalty case?

Varies but should mention that capital sentencing evaluations are among the most detailed and demanding type of forensic assessment. There are also concerns about deficiencies of both actuarial and clinical predictions of dangerousness in death penalty cases. Some psychologists are comfortable documenting the existence of mitigating factors.

Identify three insanity tests and identify the question each test asks.

Examples may include the right/wrong test, which asks "Did the person know the difference between right and wrong?" The right/wrong test with volitional prong asks "If the person knew the difference, was he unable to appreciate the criminality of his actions or control his conduct to conform to the requirements of the law?" The model penal code asks "Did the person lack the substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his actions or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law?" The IDRA asks "Did the person lack the capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his actions?"

chapter 2

A forensic psychologist who has been appointed by family court to provide emotional support during a divorce proceeding is playing the role of ______. A. coach B. review expert C. consultant D. mediator

A

Why are family courts often considered dangerous places for court officers, other court personnel, and participants?

A. They are often the setting for the most violent types of crimes.

B. Litigants are often represented by overzealous attorneys.

C. There is typically little security, especially at entry points.

D. The issues involve a high degree of emotion and stress.

D

Who makes the custody decision in the majority of divorce cases involving dependent children? A. the consulting psychologist B. the parents C. the judge D. the child(ren)

B

Who governs the rules for obtaining a divorce? A. state laws B. mental health professionals C. federal laws D. the courts

A

Research suggests that ______ are the most common examiners involved in custody evaluations. A. psychiatrists B. attorneys C. psychologists D. social workers

C

Alex and Sam are working together on a divorce case that involves one minor child. Alex is a family law attorney representing one of the litigants and Sam is the forensic psychologist conducting the custody evaluation. Which component of Sam's evaluation will Alex find most important?

A. psychological testing of the child

B. psychological testing of the parents

C. recommendations concerning custodial arrangements

D. recommendations to collateral sources such as schools

C

Which standard for determining child custody presumes that the child is best left in the care of the mother? A. best interest of the child standard B. tender years doctrine C. least detrimental alternative standard D. golden nurturer doctrine

B

Today, the ______ has replaced the ______ as the child custody standard.

A. best interest of the child standard; tender years doctrine

B. tender years doctrine; best interest of the child

C. least detrimental alternative standard; golden nurturer doctrine

D. golden nurturer doctrine; least detrimental alternative

A

Dr. Goodman is a forensic psychologist who has been asked to answer the ultimate issue question in a child custody case. What is this question? A. Which parent should be given custody of the child? B. Does the child have potential for future violent behavior? C. Does the child meet criteria for juvenile psychopathy? D. Which parent has committed a crime?

A

What significant change occurred in child custody evaluations between 1997 and 2008? A. an increase in the use of personality measures B. an increase in projective instruments that didn't meet the Daubert standard C. the more frequent use of intelligence and aptitude testing of children D. the more frequent use of interviewing extended family members

B

What is a criticism of many testing instruments that are used for custody evaluations? A. They cause numerous adverse effects for children. B. They don't address the ultimate issue. C. Their reliability has not been demonstrated. D. They are not used appropriately by evaluators.

C

In which situation would a psychologist most likely be asked to conduct a visitation risk assessment? A. when a custodial parent challenges the visitation rights of a noncustodial parent B. at the beginning of the divorce proceeding and before custody has been determined C. when parents separate and were never married D. during a child custody evaluation

A

Which of the following is an example of legal parental authority? A. allowing a child to play at a friend's house B. permitting the child's involvement in school sports C. letting a teenager borrow the car D. choosing a child's pediatrician

D

What is the most common custody arrangement in the United States? A. divided custody B. sole custody C. joint custody D. split custody

B

Which statement is correct about termination of parental rights? A. It is a court decision that has increased dramatically in recent years. B. Parental rights are terminated while a parent is imprisoned. C. Termination is rare and requires exceptional circumstances. D. A mother's rights may not be terminated, but a father's rights may be.

C

In Troxel v. Granville (2000), the Supreme Court denied ______ a constitutional right to visit their minor relative. A. legal parents B. grandparents C. incarcerated parents D. siblings

B

Which statement accurately summarizes research findings on the effects of divorce on children? A. Sole custody is the optimal custody arrangement for both parents and children. B. Children are best served when they have strong and healthy relationships with both parents. C. The financial standard of living rises precipitously for most children following divorce. D. Most children of divorced parents are resilient and show no long-term negative effects from the experience.

B

Sue has been offered a job in a city far away. Sue has four minor children: Val aged 5, Nic aged 7, Stella aged 10, and Millie aged 15. According to available research, which child is more likely to show better adjustment to the move? A. Val, 5 B. Nic, 7 C. Stella, 10 D. Millie, 15

C

According to the least detrimental alternative standard, psychological knowledge can best be used in child custody arrangements by helping to determine which ______. A. custody arrangement will do the least harm B. parent would be the better caregiver C. living situation would make the child the happiest D. caregiver supports the child's personality

A

A proven wrongful act that may be subject to recoverable damages in a civil lawsuit is called a(n) ______. A. codicil B. proceeding C. evaluation D. tort

D

Imagine you are a forensic psychologist who has been retained by an attorney for the plaintiff in a civil injury case. Which step would you take first?

A. determine whether or not the plaintiff meets the DSM-V criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder

B. evaluate which type of damages the defendant should receive, compensatory or punitive damages

C. determine the specific behavior the defendant used to harm the plaintiff

D. evaluate the type and degree of harm suffered by the plaintiff

D

Deterring the defendant from further harmful action and discouraging others from committing similar harmful acts in the future are the main goals of ______ damages. A. compensatory B. exculpatory C. punitive D. vindictive

C

Dr. Tom is a forensic psychologist who has been asked to evaluate the scope of damages for a plaintiff who has suffered a traumatic brain injury. Dr. Tom likely specializes in ______. A. neuropathy B. neuropsychology C. neurapraxia D. neuroforensics

B

Which type of capacity is often evaluated retrospectively? A. capacity to consent to treatment B. mental capacity C. capacity to withdraw treatment D. testamentary capacity

D

Knowing the nature and extent of one's property and an awareness of the nature and relationship of those who may be beneficiaries are elements of ______. A. civil capacity B. testamentary capacity C. tort competence D. litigable competence

B

What is the standard of proof for most civil cases? A. beyond a reasonable doubt B. preponderance of evidence C. clear and convincing evidence D. nolo contendere

B

The procedure for assessing testamentary capacity is similar to a ______.

A. civil commitment hearing

B. psychological autopsy

C. child custody evaluation

D. risk assessment

B

Psychologists evaluating plaintiffs who allege they have suffered harm are advised to focus on ______ in their reports rather than ______. A. the plaintiff; the defendant B. the defendant; the plaintiff C. functional impairments; psychiatric diagnoses D. psychiatric diagnoses; functional impairments

C

Research suggests that the most problematic element of informed consent is ______. A. competency B. mental state C. coercion D. disclosure

C

A psychological test used for a personal injury claim cannot determine ______. A. neuropsychological damages due to a traumatic brain injury B. one's psychological functioning and level of adjustment C. whether an injury is derived from personality factors D. the extent of a mental injury

C