LAB OPERATIONS MediaLab Question Bank

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This is for anything that didn't belong to any other sections. (Chem, Micro, Urine, Blood Bank, Heme). Also all math questions go here.

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69 Terms

1
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Which of the following describes the Westgard multi-rule Ras?

Four consecutive control data points are within ± Is

Four consecutive control data points are outside ± 2s

One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD

Two consecutive data points fall outside the mean four times

One data point is +2SD and a consecutive data point is -2SD

2
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After experiencing extreme fatigue and polyuria, a patient's basic metabolic panel is analyzed in the laboratory. The result of the glucose is too high for the instrument to read. The laboratorian performs a dilution using 0.25 mL of patient sample to 750 ul of diluent. The result now reads 325 mg/dL. How should the technologist report this patient's glucose result?

325 mg/dL

1,300 mg/dL

975 mg/dL

1,625 mg/dL

1,300 mg/dL

3
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You are working to validate a new method for detecting C-reactive protein (CRP) in serum. To assess precision, you run a medium-level control 30 times and determine the mean to be 4.0 mg/dL with a standard deviation of 0.04 mg/dL. What could be said about the precision of this run, assuming a CV less than 3% is acceptable?

It is not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 100%.

It is not acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 10%.

It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 0.1%.

It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%.

It is acceptable, with a coefficient of variation of 1%.

4
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A procedure calls for 6 mL of IN HCl. A stock solution of 3N HCl is available. How would you prepare the required concentration?

Make a 1:3 dilution of 3N HCl

Make a 1:2 dilution of 3N HCl

Make a 1:4 dilution of 3N HCl

Make a 1:5 dilution of 3N HCl

Make a 1:3 dilution of 3N HCl

5
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Which of the following terms is used to describe a sudden change in the quality control data mean that persists throughout subsequent days of testing?

Variance

Dispersion

Shift

Trend

Shift

6
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Which of the following instruments measures light scatter by particles?

Osmometer

Coulometer

Nephelometer

Spectrophotometer

Nephelometer

7
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When should you first refer to a chemical's label?

Before moving or opening the chemical

Before disposing of the chemical

After a spill

After accidentally ingesting the chemical

Before moving or opening the chemical

8
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To ensure quality within the preanalytical phase of laboratory testing, quality assurance activities includes monitoring all of the following preanalytical variables EXCEPT:

Selection of reference materials used for validation purposes.

Laboratory test utilization.

Positive patient identification.

The stability of patient specimens during transport.

Selection of reference materials used for validation purposes.

9
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The selectivity of an ion-selective electrode is determined by the:

Properties of the membrane used

Magnitude of the potential across the membrane

The size of the membrane used

Neural potential of the membrane

Properties of the membrane used

10
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All of the following statements about using bar-coded labels on specimens are true, EXCEPT?

Labeling errors are decreased.

All possibility of errors is eliminated.

Keyless data entry is facilitated.

Documentation is standardized.

All possibility of errors is eliminated.

11
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The degree of electricity-induced injury is dependent upon which of the following factors?

The time when the electricity-induced injury occurred.

The length of time the body remains in contact with an electrical current.

Source/item delivering the electrical current.

Age of the item delivering the electrical current.

The length of time the body remains in contact with an electrical current.

12
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Semi-automated and automated urine chemical reagent strip readers:

Increase the sensitivity of the urine dipsticks

Increase the specificity of the urine dipsticks

Remove subjectivity allowing for better reproducibility

Guarantee the sensitivity and specificity of urine dipsticks

Remove subjectivity allowing for better reproducibility

13
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What section of the SDS would provide information about whether a chemical is carcinogenic?

Physical and chemical data

Health hazard data

Reactivity data

Handling and storage data

Health hazard data

14
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In an standard electrophoretic separation, what zone appears first (anodal end) on the densitometric pattern?

Albumin

a1-globulins

a2-globulins

ß-globulins

Albumin

15
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Which of the following does the most to minimize aerosol production during centrifugation?

Using a refrigerated centrifuge

Using centrifuge tubes with tapered bottoms

Decreasing rotor speed and increasing centrifuge time

Using stoppered centrifuge tubes or a cover over the rotor chamber

Using stoppered centrifuge tubes or a cover over the rotor chamber

16
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All of the following test principles are matched with the most appropriate response, EXCEPT:

bDNA - Signal amplification using alkaline phosphatase and no thermal cycling is needed.

TMA - Target amplification using reverse transcriptase. Thermal cycling is needed.

PCR - Target amplification using DNA polymerase and thermal cycling.

NASBA - Target amplification using 3 enzymes and no thermal cycling.

TMA - Target amplification using reverse transcriptase. Thermal cycling is needed.

17
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Proteins in a buffer that sets the pH at 8.6 will become _____ charged and migrate to the _____

Negatively; Anode

Negatively; Cathode

Positively; Anode

Positively; Cathode

Negatively; Anode

18
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What is a workload reporting system, and why is it an important part of laboratory management?

It tells exactly how much should be charged per test

Keeps personnel busy in their free time

Counts only the tests performed and specimens received in the laboratory without inflating these figures by adding in quality control and standardization efforts

Helps in planning, developing, and maintaining efficient laboratory services with administrative and budget controls

Helps in planning, developing, and maintaining efficient laboratory services with administrative and budget controls

19
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Determine the molarity of a solution of HCl that is contained in a Class A I-L volumetric flask filled to the calibration mark. The content label reads 32 g HCl. The gmw of HCl=36.46 g/mol.

0.88 mol/L

0.90 mol/L

0.92 mol/L

0.98 mol/L

0.88 mol/L

20
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An effective voluntary accreditation agency for a clinical laboratory has a role in all of the following areas EXCEPT:

Reduce or eliminate billing errors whenever possible.

Prevent criminal activities within the company.

Help the laboratory during an investigation by the government.

Hiring and dismissal of employees.

Hiring and dismissal of employees.

21
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What weight of H2S04 is contained in 200 mL of a 4 molar H2S04 solution? (Atomic weight H=1; S=32; O= 16)

78.4 g

156.8 g

39.2 g

15.68 g

78.4 g

22
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<p>Each day, laboratorians must evaluate the quality of samples submitted to the laboratory for analysis, specifically to help prevent pre- analytical errors. Based on the photograph to the right, match the tubes with letters to their correct corresponding descriptions below.</p><p></p><p>A-hemolyzed B-lipemic C-icteric D-normal</p><p>A-normal B-hemolyzed C-icteric D-hemolyzed</p><p>A-lipemic B-icteric C-normal D-hemolyzed</p><p>A-lipemic B-hemolyzed C-normal D-icteric</p>

Each day, laboratorians must evaluate the quality of samples submitted to the laboratory for analysis, specifically to help prevent pre- analytical errors. Based on the photograph to the right, match the tubes with letters to their correct corresponding descriptions below.

A-hemolyzed B-lipemic C-icteric D-normal

A-normal B-hemolyzed C-icteric D-hemolyzed

A-lipemic B-icteric C-normal D-hemolyzed

A-lipemic B-hemolyzed C-normal D-icteric

A-lipemic B-hemolyzed C-normal D-icteric

23
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What is the role of a sentinel laboratory within the Laboratory Response Network (LRN)?

To make the decision that a bioterrorism event has occurred and notify the press

To rule-out critical biological agents or to refer them to a Laboratory Response Network (LRN) reference laboratory

To detect and confirm (rule-in) the presence of a threat agent

To test environmental samples during a suspected bioterrorism event

To rule-out critical biological agents or to refer them to a Laboratory Response Network (LRN) reference laboratory

24
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When it comes to laboratory ergonomics, which of the following working situations is LEAST likely to result in aches, tired muscles, or musculoskeletal disorders?

Sitting and looking through a microscope for the whole day.

Standing in a static position for long periods of time.

Standing and sitting intermittently.

Capping and uncapping tubes for the majority of the day.

Standing and sitting intermittently.

25
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If you see amplification in the negative control on a PCR, what should you do next?

Repeat all negative samples

Repeat the entire run

Repeat all positive samples

Repeat only low positive samples

Repeat the entire run

26
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As defined by a Gaussian distribution curve, what percentage of values would be expected to fall within two standard deviations of the mean?

75%

85%

95%

99.7%

95%

27
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How often is competency testing required in the first year of employment for a new staff member who is performing non-waived testing according to the Clinical Laboratory Amendments of 1988 (CLIA'88)?

Monthly

Quarterly

Semiannually

Annually

Semiannually

28
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What is the proper lifting procedure that should be used to lift items from the floor?

Kick it along with your feet.

Keep your legs as straight as possible and use your back muscles.

Bend your legs and lift with your leg muscles.

Bend you legs, but lift with your arms as much as possible.

Bend your legs and lift with your leg muscles.

29
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Which of the following BEST describes the relation of nephelometry to turbidimetry?

Nephelometry measures the amount of light absorbed by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the amount of light transmitted through a solution

Nephelometry directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the decrease in incident-light intensity

Nephelometry measures the amount of light emitted by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the amount of light reflected by particles in solution

Nephelometry measures the amount of light absorbed, and Turbidimetry measures the amount of light scattered

Nephelometry directly measures the amount of light scattered by particles in solution, and turbidimetry measures the decrease in incident-light intensity

30
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The lowest taxonomic level in the cognitive domain is:

Awareness

Application

Recall

Readiness

Recall

31
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What is the CORRECT blood-to-anticoagulant ratio in blue top (sodium citrate) tubes used for coagulation tests?

4:1

5:1

9:1

10:1

9:1

32
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What do you need to make up 450 mL of a 3.8 M solution of NaOH (gmw=39.997 g/mol)?

68.4 g NaOH

72.8 g NaOH

84.6 g NaOH

96.8 g NaOH

68.4 g NaOH

33
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What is the molarity of a 3.5 N solution of HCl (gmw=36.46 g/mol, valence—I)?

2.5 mol/L HCl

3.0 mol/L HCl

3.5 mol/L HCl

4.0 mol/L HCl

3.5 mol/L HCl

34
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What is the standard deviation of the following data set, rounded to the nearest whole number?

15, 16, 18, 16, 14, 10, 20, 12, 14

3

4

5

6

3

35
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The closeness of the results obtained to the true and actual value of an analyte is a reflection of:

The precision of the assay

Reproducibility of the assay

Sensitivity of the assay

Accuracy of the assay

Accuracy of the assay

36
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All of the following are considered protected health information (PHI), EXCEPT:

Educational information

Social security number

Hospital identification number

Patient's name

Educational information

37
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According to the Michaelis-Menton kinetics theory, when a reaction is performed in zero-order kinetics:

The substrate concentration is very low and the reaction rate is dependent on the substrate concentration

The substrate concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is dependent on the enzyme concentration

The enzyme concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is dependent on the substrate concentration

The substrate concentration is equal to Km and the reaction rate is dependent on the enzyme concentration

The substrate concentration is in excess and the reaction rate is dependent on the enzyme concentration

38
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On a Proficiency Test Report (i.e., CAP), the Standard Deviation Index (SDI) is an indication of:

The position of your test result compared to the mean of the test group.

The standard deviation (SD) of the test group compared to your SD.

The comparative SDI of the test group compared to your test mean.

The SD of your test compared to the mean and SD of the test group.

The position of your test result compared to the mean of the test group.

39
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Which type of electrophoresis is used to separate larger DNA fragments (>50 kb)?

Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

Capillary electrophoresis

Isoelectric focusing

Pulsed field electrophoresis

Pulsed field electrophoresis

40
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Which of the following errors occurs in the pre-analytical phase?

Incorrectly performed instrument calibration

Incorrectly collected sample

Incorrectly handled critical test value

Incorrectly performed dilution on the instrument

Incorrectly collected sample

41
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All of the following are factors that will affect migration in gel electrophoresis, EXCEPT?

Gel concentration (size of gel pores)

Size of particle

Voltage used

Amount of light present

Amount of light present

42
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The number of patients correctly diagnosed for the disease or not having the disease is defined as:

Positive predictive value

Negative predictive value

Efficiency

Sensitivity

Efficiency

43
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The CDCs Laboratory Response Network (LRN) consists of all of the following except:

Sentinel laboratories

American Society for Microbiology (ASM)

Reference laboratories

Department of Defense (DoD)

American Society for Microbiology (ASM)

44
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All of the following are included in a quality control program, EXCEPT?

Protocol to identify problems in equipment

Protocol to correct problems in equipment

Protocol to monitor problems in equipment

Protocol to prove patient results are correct

Protocol to prove patient results are correct

45
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At a minimum, the following class of biological safety cabinet (BSC) must be used when manipulating potential bioterrorism agents and if aerosols are likely:

Class I BSC

Class II BSC

Class Ill BSC

Class IV BSC

Class II BSC

46
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All of the following are examples of entities covered by the HIPAA Privacy Rule, EXCEPT?

Hospitals

Physician's offices

Health care billing companies

Hospital and laboratory accrediting agencies

Hospital and laboratory accrediting agencies

47
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When operating a centrifuge, what happens if the centrifugation time is reduced and the speed increased?

The potential breakage of collection tube is highly increased.

There is increased chance of exposure to biohazardous agents.

There will be incomplete separation of red blood cells and serum in the tube.

Mechanical damage to the centrifuge may occur.

There will be incomplete separation of red blood cells and serum in the tube.

48
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Which of the following pipettes is the safest and most accurate tool for dilution of cerebrospinal fluids?

Volumetric pipette

Disposable transfer pipette

Mouth pipettes

Calibrated automatic pipette

Calibrated automatic pipette

49
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Other than signing an informed consent form, a patient may give consent for a venipuncture procedure through all of the following actions EXCEPT:

Rolling up a shirt sleeve.

Holding out his or her arm.

Turning his or her arm over into the correct position for phlebotomy procedure.

Nodding in agreement with the information shared by the health care provider.

Nodding in agreement with the information shared by the health care provider.

50
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What are the steps of Root Cause Analysis?

Organize the procedure, chart the factors, and assess the results of the actions

Collect the information, identify reasons, chart the factors, and generate recommendations

Chart the factors, identify reasons, organize the procedure, and calculate risk factors

Identify reasons, generate recommendations, and assess the results of the actions

Collect the information, identify reasons, chart the factors, and generate recommendations

51
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Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) consists of deoxyribose sugars connected by phosphodiester bonds. The bases that are covalently linked to each deoxyribose sugar are the key to the genetic code within the DNA molecule. The four nitrogenous bases are two purines and two pyrimidines. What are the correct classifications for the four bases (adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine)?

Pyrimidines = adenine & guanine; purines = cytosine & thymine

Pyrimidines = cytosine & thymine; purines = adenine & guanine

Pyrimidines = cytosine & guanine; purines = adenine & thymine

Pyrimidines = cytosine & adenine; purines = thymine & guanine

Pyrimidines = cytosine & thymine; purines = adenine & guanine

52
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All of the following are considered repetitive strain disorders, EXCEPT?

Tenosynovitis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Bursitis

Ganglion cysts

Rheumatoid arthritis

53
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If a pipette is labeled (TC) "to contain" you would do the following:

Drain pipette, but not blow out

Drain contents then rinse out with diluting fluid

Drain to last mark on pipette

Do not consider the meniscus when filling

Drain contents then rinse out with diluting fluid

54
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How often are proof of competency evaluations supposed to occur after the first year of employment according to CLIA?

Once a month

Once every 6 months

Once every year

Once every two years

Once every year

55
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Which of the following is the best media for recovery and presumptive identification of Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) difficile in suspected cases of pseudomembranous colitis?

CDC anaerobic blood agar

Columbia agar with 596 sheep blood

Cycloserine-cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA)

Phenylethyl agar

Cycloserine-cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA)

56
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Which of the following can lower the amount of current needed to cause electricity-induced injury?

Ground wires

Wet skin

More carbon dioxide in the air

Dry skin

Wet skin

57
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What is the correct statement when describing molecular testing techniques?

Renaturation is the process of converting double-stranded DNA to single strands.

Double-stranded DNA found in human genomes is a hybrid.

Target amplification assays use methods to make more copies of a specific region of DNA.

In signal amplification methods, the target number increases as the signal is amplified.

Target amplification assays use methods to make more copies of a specific region of DNA.

58
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Which section of the clinical laboratory is regulated by the FDA?

Blood Bank

Chemistry

Hematology

Microbiology

Blood Bank

59
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Which of the following is a Westgard multirule that would detect systematic error only?

12S

13S

R4S

41S

41S

60
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A phlebotomist must perform a skin puncture to obtain capillary specimens for a complete blood count, a plasma-based chem test, and a serum-based immunology test. The microcollection containers that will be used are lavender, green, and gold top. Which is collected first?

Lavender
Green
Gold
Red

Lavender

61
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How frequently must technologist competency be evaluated after initial training in a lab has been completed?

Quarterly
Every six months
Annually
Every two years

Annually

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