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Last updated 4:50 PM on 5/3/23
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140 Terms

1
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science concerned with properties of drugs and their effects on the living system
pharmacology
2
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branch of pharmacology that deals directly with effectiveness and safety of drugs in a clinical setting
clinical pharmacology
3
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amount of drug given at one time
dose
4
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amount given, the route, the interval between, and the duration of therapy
dosage
5
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ability of a drug to control/cure an illness
efficacy
6
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lowest concentration that produces the desired effect
minimum effective concentration
7
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refers to the dose effective in 50% of population
ED50
8
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drug concentration associated with efficacy and not toxicity
therapeutic range
9
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amount of drug needed to achieve specific biological effect and seldom of any medical significance
potency
10
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* which is a proprietary name?
* mitotane
* amoxicillin
* albon
* none
albon
11
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an adverse event that is idiosyncratic, unpredictable, and often non-dose dependent
type b
12
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an adverse event that can be anticipated based on mechanism of drug and is usually dose dependent
type a
13
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substance naturally produced in the body and it induces a physiologic action
endogenous agonist
14
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substance that blocks the action of an agonist
antagonist
15
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substance that binds to the same site as an agonist but doesn’t activate it, therefore blocking the agonist action; prevents activity of drugs and reverses effects of drugs
competitive antagonist
16
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substance that binds to more than one type of receptor and causes an effect at one receptor and no effect or less pronounced effect at another
partial agonist
17
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substance that binds to one or more types of receptors and causes certain effects
pure agonist
18
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substance that have agonist activity at one receptor site while simultaneously producing an antagonist activity at another site
agonist-antagonist
19
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drugs are primarily metabolized by the
liver
20
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T/F: Because of the “first pass effect”, a large portion of orally administered meds are inactivated by the liver before entering circulation. This is why oral doses are smaller than injectable
false
21
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a dose of four tenth of mg would be written how?
0\.4 mg
22
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T/F: All ethical products sold through DVM are illegal to sale
false
23
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regulates pesticides and topical flea/tick products
EPA
24
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regulates oral or parenterally administered pesticides
FDA
25
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regulates veterinary biologics/vaccines
USDA
26
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agency that enforces provisions of the Controlled Substances Act of 1970 and subsequent amendments
DEA
27
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refills for a non-controlled prescription drug may be authorized by the veterinarian for a maximum of (how long) from date on the original prescription
12 months
28
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there is a (how long) refill limit for a controlled prescription drug
6 months
29
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T/F: OTC product is used extra-label in animals, it must not be treated as a prescription drug in accordance with the provisions of AMDUCA
false
30
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if there is a veterinary product available, do you have to choose it over a human product for non-food animals?
no
31
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* Which of the following applies for a compounded product?
* no resale
* not a duplication
* based on individual needs
* all the above
all the above
32
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abuse may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence
schedule II
33
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drugs with the lowest potential for abuse
schedule V
34
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high potential for abuse
schedule I
35
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less potential for abuse
schedule III
36
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limited physical or psychological dependence potential
schedule IV
37
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the DEA requires that Controlled Substance Records be kept for…
2 years
38
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T/F: When humane societies obtain DEA license, the vet responsible can use the same vet DEA registration for their clinical and shelter
false
39
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outdated, damaged, or contaminated controlled substance must be disposed of, and we follow federal regulations and file …
DEA form 41
40
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to order schedule II drugs file a ….
DEA form 222
41
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T/F: Mistakes on a DEA form can be corrected only with liquid paper
false
42
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these can NOT be refilled
schedule I
43
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during repolarization, (what) moves out of the call
potassium
44
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what clinical signs are expected after administering glycopyrrolate?
increase heart rate
45
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a owner is prescribed nitroglycerin cream for their pet. What advice can you give the owner?
wear gloves, apply to pinna of ear and layer of skin w/o hair, do NOT pet area with cream
46
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T/F: Drug that block alpha-1 receptors, decrease arterial blood pressures
true
47
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T/F: Drugs that imitates acetylcholine would slow heart rate
true
48
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what is the drug of choice for control of premature ventricular contractions and ventricular arrhythmias?
lidocaine
49
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client calls in regards to their 2-year-old cat presenting with diarrhea and vomiting. The pet is on Digoxin. What is your suggestion?
bring in immediately
50
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what is the drug of choice for accumulating in cardiac muscles and cause residual affect after infusion?
dobutamine
51
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in cats, facial dermatitis is a side effect of…
spironolactone
52
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the main purpose of vasopressors….
increase blood pressure when fluid therapy is insufficient
53
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a feline patient presents to the clinic for high blood pressure issues. The doctor put the patient on an antihypertensive medication. A week later the owner reports that the patient has been vomiting and having diarrhea for the past 24 hrs. Which antihypertensive medication is the patient most likely on?
amlodipine
54
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name some diseases or medical conditions that bronchodilators are used to treat
feline asthma, equine COPD, and dog chronic bronchitis
55
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what medication route is used to give terbutaline?
SQ
56
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T/F: Decongestants are rarely used in animals
true
57
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this class of respiratory drugs are designed to break mucous
mucolytics
58
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this is the emetic drug of choice in cats
xylazine
59
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maropitant is a NK-1 receptor antagonist antiemetic. what is the trade name?
cerenia
60
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what is the generic name for zofran?
ondansetron
61
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according to the article “assessment of dexmedetomidine”, two reversal medications for this drug are
atipamezole hydrochloride and yohimbine
62
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according to the article “assessment of dexmedetomidine”, what has no effect on inducing emesis in cats?
hydrogen peroxide
63
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five ways the vomiting reflex is influenced
* stimulation of neurons from emetic center
* stimulation of chemoreceptor trigger zone
* distention or irritation of GI contents
* inner ear balance
* emotional stimulus or intracranial trauma or pressure
64
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a canine patient presents to the clinic having ate a reese’s peanut butter cup. What drug will you give to induce vomiting?
apomorphine
65
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an owner calls concerned because her dog has had darks stool for 2 days. she is worried it is due to digested food. the dog has been on bismuth subsalicylate for 2 days. how do you respond to the client?
these side effects are expected but we can slow down the medication to make the stool go back to normal
66
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which drug is considered an antacid/antiulcer drug?
nizatidine
67
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which of the following antidiarrheal should not be used in cats?
bismuth subsalicylate
68
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levothryoxine treats
hypothyroid
69
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mitotane and trilostane treat
hyperadrenocorticism
70
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I-131 and methimazole treat
hyperthyroidism
71
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DOCP (percortin) and fludrocortison (flurinef) treat
addison’s
72
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glipizide in cats treats
diabetes mellitus
73
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diazoxide and glucocorticoids treat
insulinomas
74
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T/F: When performing TDM, use serum separator tubes for any samples
false
75
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T/F: Do not give prednisone or prednisolone until after ACTH stim test
true
76
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this drug is used in the treatment of hypocalcemia. it does NOT require PTH for activation and is preferred form of vitamin D in hypoparathyroidism
dihydrotachysterol
77
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for treating diabetes mellitus, which form of therapy is the better choice?
insulin
78
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T/F: When preparing insulin administration, shake the vial to mix
false
79
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this should NOT be given to patients in insulin shock
table sugar
80
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T/F: When giving insulin to a patient, the syringe g does not matter
false
81
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referred to as “mismating shot” and prevents embryo implantation in dogs within 72 hrs of mating
estradiol cypionate injection
82
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given to female dogs to either prevent estrus or shorten estrus
megesterol acetate (ovaban)
83
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oral liquid to suppress estrus in mares
altrenogest (regu mate)
84
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lyses corpus luteum on ovary, forcing animal to begin estrous
prostaglandin F2 alpha
85
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used to cause milk-let down; also causes uterine contractions for 2 days
oxytocin
86
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bladder detrusor atony
hypocontractile
87
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bladder urge incontinence
hypercontractile
88
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the most common cause of incontinence in adult female dogs
urethral incompetence
89
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phenylpropanolamine if effective in (what) of female dogs with urethral incontinence
85-90%
90
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indicated for detrusor instability
oxybutynin
91
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smooth muscle relaxation. it is used primarily for its effect in reducing internal urethral sphincter tone in dogs and cats when urethral sphincter hypertonus presents
phenoxybenzamine
92
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used to increase bladder contractility; increased tone of detrusor muscle of the bladder; used to treat “spinal cord bladder”
bethanechol
93
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increases urethral closure pressure by increasing density and responsiveness of alpha-adrenergic receptors in urethral smooth muscles
diethylstilbestrol
94
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NSAIDS work by blocking
cyclo-oxygenase
95
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anti-inflammatory steroids block
phospholipase
96
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the most common side effect of NSAIDS
GI ulceration
97
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which drug is an alcohol type of glucocorticoid?
flumethasone
98
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T/F: you can safely give NSAIDS to a dehydrated patient
false
99
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what disease is caused by long-term use of glucocorticoid drugs?
hyperadrenocorticism
100
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which of the following steroids is more commonly used for topical applications?
cortisone (cortisol)

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