Chapter 27 - Infectious Diseases

Which of the following is the most common mode of transmission for influenza?
A) Bloodborne
B) Airborne droplets
C) Sexual contact
D) Vector-borne

B) Airborne droplets

(Influenza spreads primarily through respiratory droplets expelled when an infected person coughs or sneezes.)

A patient presents with fever, stiff neck, photophobia, and altered mental status. Which infectious disease should you suspect?
A) Pneumonia
B) Sepsis
C) Meningitis
D) Influenza

C) Meningitis

(The classic triad of meningitis includes fever, nuchal rigidity, and altered mental status, with photophobia as a common feature.)

What is the initial EMS management priority in suspected sepsis?
A) Administering antibiotics
B) Providing fluid resuscitation
C) Ensuring airway, oxygen, and rapid transport
D) Applying vasopressors

C) Ensuring airway, oxygen, and rapid transport

(EMS focuses on airway/oxygenation, rapid recognition, and alerting the hospital for sepsis protocol activation.)

Which PPE is essential when caring for a patient with suspected tuberculosis?
A) Surgical mask
B) N95 respirator
C) Gloves only
D) Gown and gloves

B) N95 respirator

(TB spreads via airborne particles, requiring an N95 respirator for proper protection.)

Which infectious disease is characterized by a bull’s-eye rash (erythema migrans)?
A) Malaria
B) Tuberculosis
C) Lyme disease
D) Tetanus

C) Lyme disease

(Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness; the bull’s-eye rash is a classic presentation.)

What is the most common cause of septic shock?
A) Viral infections
B) Bacterial infections
C) Fungal infections
D) Parasitic infections

B) Bacterial infections

(Septic shock is most often triggered by bacterial infections that enter the bloodstream and cause systemic inflammation.)

Which viral infection has a high risk of transmission to EMS providers via needlestick injuries?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Influenza
C) COVID-19
D) Tuberculosis

A) Hepatitis B

(Hepatitis B is bloodborne, highly infectious, and transmissible via needlestick exposure.)

A patient presents with persistent cough, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Which condition is most likely?
A) Pneumonia
B) Influenza
C) Tuberculosis
D) Bronchitis

C) Tuberculosis

(These are the classic signs of active pulmonary TB.)

What is the EMS provider’s best defense against transmission of infectious diseases?
A) Post-exposure prophylaxis
B) Standard precautions
C) Vaccinations
D) Antibiotics

B) Standard precautions

(Handwashing, gloves, masks, and universal precautions are the cornerstone of infection prevention.)

Which infectious disease is caused by a protozoan parasite transmitted by mosquitoes?
A) Malaria
B) Ebola
C) Hepatitis C
D) Syphilis

A) Malaria

(Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species and spread by the Anopheles mosquito.)

Which viral infection can cause opportunistic infections when it progresses to AIDS?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) HIV
D) Influenza

C) HIV

(HIV destroys CD4 T-cells, weakening the immune system and predisposing patients to opportunistic infections.)

A patient presents with high fever, hypotension, tachycardia, and mottled skin. Which condition should you suspect?
A) Sepsis
B) Meningitis
C) Influenza
D) Pneumonia

A) Sepsis

(Sepsis presents with systemic infection signs and poor perfusion, progressing rapidly to shock if untreated.)

Which infectious disease has a vaccine that EMS providers are strongly encouraged to receive?
A) Hepatitis C
B) Hepatitis B
C) HIV
D) Influenza

B) Hepatitis B

(Hepatitis B vaccination is standard for healthcare workers to prevent occupational exposure risks.)

What is the primary EMS treatment for suspected bacterial meningitis?
A) Administer antibiotics immediately
B) Apply cooling blankets for fever
C) Provide supportive care, oxygen, and rapid transport
D) Give IV fluids and steroids

C) Provide supportive care, oxygen, and rapid transport

(EMS does not administer antibiotics; care focuses on supportive management and notifying the hospital early.)

Which virus is the most common cause of seasonal epidemics?
A) Influenza
B) Rhinovirus
C) Hepatitis A
D) Varicella

A) Influenza

(Influenza is responsible for annual outbreaks and significant seasonal illness.)

A patient returning from Africa presents with fever, jaundice, and bleeding. Which condition should you suspect?
A) Influenza
B) Ebola
C) Malaria
D) Tuberculosis

B) Ebola

(Ebola is a viral hemorrhagic fever causing bleeding, organ failure, and high mortality.)

Which type of hepatitis is spread primarily through contaminated food and water?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D

A) Hepatitis A

(Hepatitis A is transmitted fecal-orally, often through contaminated food or water.)

Which symptom is most concerning in a patient with suspected influenza?
A) Muscle aches
B) Productive cough
C) Sudden shortness of breath
D) Low-grade fever

C) Sudden shortness of breath

(Shortness of breath suggests possible pneumonia or ARDS complication, requiring urgent evaluation.)

Which infectious disease presents with Koplik spots followed by a widespread rash?
A) Chickenpox
B) Measles
C) Mumps
D) Rubella

B) Measles

(Koplik spots inside the mouth are pathognomonic for measles, preceding a generalized rash.)

Which action should EMS providers take after a confirmed needlestick exposure?
A) Wash the area, report immediately, and seek evaluation for post-exposure prophylaxis
B) Apply a tourniquet above the site
C) Squeeze the wound to promote bleeding
D) Continue working until shift end

A) Wash the area, report immediately, and seek evaluation for post-exposure prophylaxis

(Immediate cleaning, documentation, and prophylaxis evaluation are critical to prevent infection.)

Which bacterial infection is commonly associated with “lockjaw”?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Tetanus
C) Diphtheria
D) Pertussis

B) Tetanus

(Tetanus causes muscle rigidity and spasms due to toxin effects, often presenting first with jaw stiffness.)

Which type of isolation is required for patients with suspected measles?
A) Contact isolation
B) Airborne isolation
C) Droplet isolation
D) Standard precautions only

B) Airborne isolation

(Measles is highly contagious and spreads via airborne particles, requiring negative-pressure rooms and N95s.)

Which disease is known as the “whooping cough”?
A) Pertussis
B) Diphtheria
C) Tetanus
D) Rubella

A) Pertussis

(Pertussis is a bacterial infection that causes severe coughing fits followed by a characteristic “whoop.”)

A patient reports recent travel to a malaria-endemic region and now presents with fever, chills, and sweats. Which condition should you suspect?
A) Pneumonia
B) Malaria
C) Typhoid fever
D) HIV

B) Malaria

(Malaria has cyclical fever spikes corresponding to parasite release from red blood cells.)

Which of the following is the best definition of a pandemic?
A) A localized disease outbreak
B) A disease present in a community at all times
C) A global disease outbreak
D) A hospital-acquired infection

C) A global disease outbreak

(Pandemic

worldwide spread; epidemic

regional outbreak; endemic

always present.)

Which infectious disease is often spread in healthcare settings due to spore resistance to disinfectants?
A) Clostridium difficile (C. diff)
B) Influenza
C) Tuberculosis
D) HIV

A) Clostridium difficile (C. diff)

(C. diff spores resist many disinfectants; strict handwashing and cleaning are required.)

A patient presents with parotid gland swelling and pain. Which infectious disease should be suspected?
A) Rubella
B) Measles
C) Mumps
D) Influenza

C) Mumps

(Mumps causes painful swelling of salivary glands, often bilateral.)

Which bacterial infection produces a pseudomembrane in the throat, leading to airway obstruction?
A) Pertussis
B) Diphtheria
C) Tetanus
D) Streptococcus

B) Diphtheria

(Diphtheria produces a gray pseudomembrane that can obstruct the airway.)

Which condition is the leading cause of death in HIV-positive patients?
A) Opportunistic infections
B) Heart failure
C) Renal failure
D) Stroke

A) Opportunistic infections

(HIV destroys immune defenses, allowing opportunistic infections like PCP pneumonia to cause death.)

Which PPE is required when caring for a patient with suspected Ebola?
A) N95 mask and gloves
B) Full barrier protection with gown, gloves, mask, and face shield
C) Gloves only
D) Gown and surgical mask

B) Full barrier protection with gown, gloves, mask, and face shield

(Ebola spreads through direct contact with body fluids; maximum barrier protection is required.)

Which infectious disease is transmitted primarily by deer ticks?
A) Malaria
B) Lyme disease
C) Typhus
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

B) Lyme disease

(Lyme disease is transmitted by Ixodes ticks, often after 24–48 hours of attachment.)

What does the term “opportunistic infection” mean?
A) A disease caused by direct trauma
B) A disease only found in children
C) An infection that occurs when the immune system is weakened
D) A disease spread by vectors

C) An infection that occurs when the immune system is weakened

(HIV/AIDS patients are especially prone to opportunistic infections.)

Which symptom is a red flag for meningococcemia (meningococcal sepsis)?
A) Dry cough
B) Petechial rash
C) Productive sputum
D) Sore throat

B) Petechial rash

(Petechiae indicate meningococcal septicemia, which can progress rapidly to shock and death.)

Which hepatitis virus is most likely to cause chronic infection?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D

C) Hepatitis C

(Hepatitis C frequently becomes chronic and can lead to cirrhosis and liver cancer.)

Which infectious disease causes painful genital ulcers and is sexually transmitted?
A) Syphilis
B) HIV
C) Gonorrhea
D) Chlamydia

A) Syphilis

(Syphilis begins with a painless chancre, but secondary stages can involve systemic symptoms and ulcers.)

What is the best EMS approach to handling contaminated linens from an infectious patient?
A) Shake them out before bagging
B) Double-bag them and label appropriately
C) Wash them with regular laundry
D) Leave them at the scene

B) Double-bag them and label appropriately

(To prevent airborne spread of pathogens, linens must be carefully bagged and labeled for decontamination.)

Which disease is most associated with a maculopapular rash that begins on the face and spreads downward?
A) Rubella
B) Influenza
C) Malaria
D) HIV

A) Rubella

(Rubella rash starts on the face, spreading to the trunk and extremities, often mild but dangerous in pregnancy.)

Which patient presentation is most consistent with tetanus?
A) Flaccid paralysis
B) Muscle spasms and trismus
C) Petechiae and fever
D) Productive cough

B) Muscle spasms and trismus

(Tetanus toxin causes uncontrolled muscle spasms, beginning with lockjaw.)

What is the most important infection control practice after removing gloves?
A) Use alcohol hand sanitizer only
B) Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water
C) Place gloves in the trash
D) Apply lotion to prevent cracks

B) Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water

(Handwashing is the most effective way to prevent pathogen spread, even after glove removal.)

Which of the following is true about hepatitis B?
A) There is no vaccine available
B) It is transmitted via fecal-oral route
C) It can survive outside the body for days
D) It does not cause chronic infection

C) It can survive outside the body for days

(Hepatitis B virus is highly infectious and can live on surfaces for extended periods, making it dangerous for EMS.)

Which classic symptom is associated with influenza?
A) Sudden onset of fever, myalgia, and cough
B) Gradual onset of fatigue only
C) Petechial rash
D) Painless ulcers

A) Sudden onset of fever, myalgia, and cough

(Influenza typically presents with abrupt fever, body aches, and respiratory symptoms.)

Which infectious disease is known for its characteristic bull’s-eye rash (erythema migrans)?
A) Syphilis
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C) Lyme disease
D) Malaria

C) Lyme disease

(Erythema migrans rash is strongly associated with Lyme disease after a tick bite.)

Which infectious disease is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) Pneumonia
B) Tuberculosis
C) Diphtheria
D) Influenza

B) Tuberculosis

(Tuberculosis primarily affects the lungs, causing cough, night sweats, and weight loss.)

What is the primary transmission route of hepatitis A?
A) Bloodborne
B) Fecal-oral
C) Respiratory droplets
D) Sexual contact

B) Fecal-oral

(Hepatitis A is spread through contaminated food or water; unlike Hep B/C, it rarely becomes chronic.)

Which infectious disease presents with Koplik spots in the mouth before rash onset?
A) Rubella
B) Measles
C) Mumps
D) Varicella

B) Measles

(Measles shows small white oral lesions called Koplik spots before the rash develops.)

Which organism is most commonly responsible for strep throat?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

(Group A strep causes pharyngitis, sore throat, fever, and sometimes scarlet fever.)

A patient develops jaundice, dark urine, and right upper quadrant pain. Which condition should be suspected?
A) Hepatitis
B) HIV
C) Influenza
D) Pneumonia

A) Hepatitis

(Liver inflammation often causes jaundice and RUQ pain, common in hepatitis infections.)

Which infectious disease can lead to congenital defects when contracted during pregnancy?
A) Influenza
B) Rubella
C) Mumps
D) Pertussis

B) Rubella

(Rubella in pregnancy can cause congenital rubella syndrome with severe birth defects.)

Which parasitic infection is transmitted by mosquitoes and involves red blood cells?
A) Malaria
B) Typhus
C) Lyme disease
D) Tuberculosis

A) Malaria

(Malaria parasites invade RBCs and cause periodic fever spikes as they rupture cells.)

Which infectious disease is associated with painful urination and purulent discharge?
A) Chlamydia
B) Syphilis
C) Gonorrhea
D) HIV

C) Gonorrhea

(Gonorrhea causes urethritis with painful urination and pus-like discharge.)

What is the incubation period for rabies before symptoms usually appear?
A) 1–2 days
B) 1–2 weeks
C) 1–3 months
D) 1–2 years

C) 1–3 months

(Rabies incubation can vary, but symptoms often appear weeks to months after exposure.)

What type of organism causes candidiasis (thrush)?
A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Fungus
D) Parasite

C) Fungus

(Candida albicans is a fungal infection that causes oral or vaginal thrush in immunocompromised patients.)

Which infectious disease is most associated with watery diarrhea after antibiotic use?
A) Tuberculosis
B) C. diff infection
C) Influenza
D) Hepatitis

B) C. diff infection

(Antibiotics disrupt normal flora, allowing C. diff to cause colitis with watery diarrhea.)

Which vector transmits plague (Yersinia pestis)?
A) Mosquito
B) Flea
C) Tick
D) Louse

B) Flea

(Plague is transmitted by fleas from rodents, historically causing pandemics like the Black Death.)

Which sexually transmitted infection is most often asymptomatic, especially in women?
A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) Trichomoniasis

A) Chlamydia

(Chlamydia often causes no symptoms, but untreated cases may lead to infertility or PID.)

Which infectious disease is associated with painful blisters around the mouth or genitals?
A) Syphilis
B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
C) Gonorrhea
D) Hepatitis

B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

(HSV causes recurrent outbreaks of painful vesicular lesions on mucous membranes.)

What is the most common vector for West Nile virus?
A) Fleas
B) Mosquitoes
C) Ticks
D) Flies

B) Mosquitoes

(West Nile virus is spread via mosquito bites, sometimes causing encephalitis or meningitis.)

Which condition is most likely in a patient with chronic cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis?
A) Influenza
B) Tuberculosis
C) HIV
D) Pneumonia

B) Tuberculosis

(TB commonly causes a chronic productive cough, blood-tinged sputum, fever, and weight loss.)

What is the typical treatment for bacterial meningitis in EMS care?
A) High-flow oxygen and supportive care
B) IV antibiotics in the field
C) Immediate antivirals
D) Antifungal therapy

A) High-flow oxygen and supportive care

(EMS focuses on airway, oxygenation, and rapid transport; antibiotics are hospital-administered.)

Which infectious disease is most associated with chickenpox and shingles?
A) Varicella-zoster virus
B) Measles virus
C) Rubella virus
D) Influenza virus

A) Varicella-zoster virus

(Varicella causes chickenpox initially; reactivation later in life causes shingles.)

Which disease is most commonly associated with deer tick exposure in the U.S.?
A) Malaria
B) Lyme disease
C) Typhus
D) HIV

B) Lyme disease

(Lyme disease is transmitted by Ixodes ticks, producing fever, rash, and joint pain.)

Which infectious disease is spread through contaminated poultry and eggs?
A) Salmonellosis
B) Shigellosis
C) Cholera
D) Tetanus

A) Salmonellosis

(Salmonella is transmitted via contaminated food, especially undercooked poultry/eggs.)

Which infectious disease causes “whooping” cough?
A) Influenza
B) Pertussis
C) Diphtheria
D) Tuberculosis

B) Pertussis

(Pertussis causes violent coughing fits followed by a "whoop" sound when inhaling.)

What symptom is most typical of meningococcal meningitis?
A) Productive cough
B) Stiff neck
C) Abdominal pain
D) Jaundice

B) Stiff neck

(Meningitis classically presents with headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity.)

Which infectious disease presents with painless chancre sores in its primary stage?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) HIV

B) Syphilis

(Syphilis begins with a painless ulcer at the infection site; later stages cause systemic effects.)

Which infectious disease is associated with parotid gland swelling?
A) Mumps
B) Rubella
C) Influenza
D) Chickenpox

A) Mumps

(Mumps virus typically causes painful swelling of the parotid salivary glands.)

Which vector transmits Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A) Tick
B) Flea
C) Mosquito
D) Fly

A) Tick

(RMSF is transmitted by ticks, causing fever, headache, and characteristic rash.)

Which disease is transmitted through exposure to infected blood, sexual contact, or perinatal exposure?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis A
C) Influenza
D) Tuberculosis

A) Hepatitis B

(Hepatitis B spreads via blood and body fluids; it can become chronic and cause cirrhosis.)

Which symptom is most strongly associated with cholera?
A) Bloody sputum
B) Severe watery diarrhea
C) Vesicular rash
D) Neurologic tremors

B) Severe watery diarrhea

(Cholera causes profuse “rice-water” diarrhea, leading to dehydration and shock.)

Which infectious disease is most often responsible for opportunistic infections in immunocompromised patients?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) Measles
C) Tuberculosis
D) Influenza

A) HIV/AIDS

(HIV weakens immunity, allowing secondary opportunistic infections like PCP pneumonia.)

Which infectious disease can cause lockjaw and muscle rigidity?
A) Botulism
B) Tetanus
C) Diphtheria
D) Polio

B) Tetanus

(Tetanus toxin causes painful muscle spasms and lockjaw.)

Which infectious disease is linked to the “common cold”?
A) Adenovirus
B) Rhinovirus
C) Varicella
D) Measles

B) Rhinovirus

(The common cold is caused mainly by rhinovirus, presenting with mild upper respiratory symptoms.)

Which condition may be prevented by post-exposure prophylaxis with immunoglobulin or vaccine?
A) Influenza
B) Rabies
C) Malaria
D) Tuberculosis

B) Rabies

(Rabies requires immediate post-exposure prophylaxis due to high mortality after symptoms appear.)

Which infectious disease is associated with severe diarrhea following international travel?
A) Traveler’s diarrhea (E. coli)
B) Tetanus
C) Diphtheria
D) Syphilis

A) Traveler’s diarrhea (E. coli)

(Enterotoxigenic E. coli is a common cause of diarrhea in travelers.)

Which infectious disease is associated with “strawberry tongue” in children?
A) Pertussis
B) Scarlet fever
C) Rubella
D) Influenza

B) Scarlet fever

(Scarlet fever, caused by strep, produces a sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue.)

What is the definitive host for the parasite that causes toxoplasmosis?
A) Dogs
B) Cows
C) Cats
D) Rodents

C) Cats

(Toxoplasmosis is transmitted via cat feces; dangerous for immunocompromised and pregnant women.)

Which infectious disease often reactivates later in life as shingles?
A) Measles
B) Rubella
C) Varicella
D) Influenza

C) Varicella

(Varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox; it reactivates as shingles.)

What is the primary mode of transmission for HIV?
A) Respiratory droplets
B) Blood and sexual contact
C) Contaminated food
D) Tick bites

B) Blood and sexual contact

(HIV spreads via blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and perinatal transmission.)

Which infectious disease causes botulinum toxin-mediated paralysis?
A) Tetanus
B) Botulism
C) Diphtheria
D) Polio

B) Botulism

(Botulinum toxin blocks acetylcholine release, causing descending paralysis.)

Which condition can be spread via airborne transmission and requires N95 precautions?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Hepatitis C
C) HIV
D) Influenza

A) Tuberculosis

(TB spreads via airborne droplets and requires respiratory isolation precautions.)

Which infectious disease is most associated with night sweats, chronic cough, and hemoptysis?
A) Pneumonia
B) Tuberculosis
C) Influenza
D) Bronchitis

B) Tuberculosis

(TB presents with cough, weight loss, fever, night sweats, and sometimes blood-streaked sputum.)

Which childhood illness is characterized by Koplik spots inside the mouth?
A) Rubella
B) Measles
C) Mumps
D) Chickenpox

B) Measles

(Measles produces fever, cough, conjunctivitis, and small white Koplik spots in the mouth.)

Which infectious disease is primarily prevented through handwashing and proper food preparation?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Salmonella
C) Tetanus
D) Rabies

B) Salmonella

(Hand hygiene and food safety reduce Salmonella spread from contaminated food.)

Which infectious disease can cause paralysis and was nearly eradicated worldwide?
A) Polio
B) Botulism
C) Tetanus
D) Diphtheria

A) Polio

(Polio virus may cause flaccid paralysis; vaccination has nearly eradicated it globally.)

Which disease is known as “lockjaw”?
A) Botulism
B) Tetanus
C) Rabies
D) Diphtheria

B) Tetanus

(Tetanus toxin causes jaw and muscle spasms, leading to lockjaw.)

Which infectious disease is most associated with “owl’s eye” inclusions on histology?
A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B) Measles
C) HIV
D) Tuberculosis

A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

(CMV produces characteristic “owl’s eye” inclusion bodies under microscopy.)

What is the main route of transmission for hepatitis A?
A) Blood exposure
B) Fecal–oral
C) Sexual contact
D) Respiratory droplets

B) Fecal–oral

(Hepatitis A is transmitted via contaminated food and water, unlike bloodborne hepatitis B/C.)

Which infection is prevented by the DTaP/Tdap vaccine?
A) Pertussis
B) Influenza
C) Tuberculosis
D) Rabies

A) Pertussis

(DTaP/Tdap protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.)

Which disease is caused by prions rather than bacteria or viruses?
A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B) Influenza
C) Tuberculosis
D) Polio

A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

(Prions cause neurodegeneration; unlike viruses/bacteria, they are misfolded proteins.)

Which infectious disease is most likely spread by unprotected sexual contact and presents with painful urination and discharge?
A) Syphilis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Hepatitis C
D) Tetanus

B) Gonorrhea

(Gonorrhea causes dysuria and purulent discharge; spread by sexual contact.)

Which condition is caused by protozoan infection via Anopheles mosquitoes?
A) Malaria
B) Leishmaniasis
C) Babesiosis
D) Dengue

A) Malaria

(Malaria is caused by Plasmodium protozoa transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes.)

Which infectious disease often causes cervical lymphadenopathy and is sometimes called “kissing disease”?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Epstein-Barr virus (mononucleosis)
C) Influenza
D) Hepatitis A

B) Epstein-Barr virus (mononucleosis)

(EBV spreads via saliva, causing fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes.)

Which infection presents with vesicular lesions in a dermatomal distribution?
A) Herpes zoster (shingles)
B) Rubella
C) Measles
D) Mumps

A) Herpes zoster (shingles)

(Reactivation of varicella-zoster virus causes painful dermatomal vesicular rash.)

Which infectious disease is associated with a bull’s-eye rash (erythema migrans)?
A) Malaria
B) Lyme disease
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D) Tetanus

B) Lyme disease

(Lyme disease produces erythema migrans rash after tick bite exposure.)

Which infection is the leading cause of healthcare-associated infections in the U.S.?
A) MRSA
B) C. difficile
C) VRE
D) E. coli

B) C. difficile

(C. diff causes severe diarrhea/colitis, often after antibiotic use in hospitalized patients.)

Which infectious disease presents with a vesicular rash that starts on the face and spreads to the trunk?
A) Varicella (chickenpox)
B) Rubella
C) Measles
D) Scarlet fever

A) Varicella (chickenpox)

(Chickenpox rash begins on face/trunk, progressing from macules to vesicles.)

Which infectious disease has a prodrome of high fever followed by cough and conjunctivitis?
A) Rubella
B) Measles
C) Mumps
D) Pertussis

B) Measles

(Measles starts with fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, then rash.)