CompTIA+Security++(SY0-701)+Study+Guide

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43 Terms

1
What is the focus of the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) certification?
It focuses on the ability to assess the security posture of an enterprise environment.
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2
What are the prerequisites recommended by CompTIA for taking the Security+ certification?
The recommendation is to have earned CompTIA A+ and Network+ certifications or equivalent experience.
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3
What percent of the CompTIA Security+ exam covers Security Operations?
28%.
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4
What is the minimum passing score for the Security+ certification exam?
750 points out of 900.
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5
What are the three aspects of the CIA triad in information security?
Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.
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6
What does the Zero Trust model operate on regarding trust?
It operates on the principle that no one should be trusted by default.
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7
What is a vulnerability according to the lecture notes?
Any weakness in system design or implementation.
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8
What is Non-Repudiation in cybersecurity?
It guarantees that an action or event cannot be denied by the involved parties.
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9
What does the 'Authentication' within the Triple A's of Security refer to?
Verifying the identity of a user or system.
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10
What is RAID, and why is it used?
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) combines multiple disk drives into a single unit to increase redundancy and protect data.
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11
What are blind spots in security?
These occur when security measures do not protect all potential vulnerabilities, especially in complex systems.
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12
What is the purpose of a risk assessment in vulnerability management?
To evaluate potential risks and decide on priorities for addressing vulnerabilities.
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13
What actions are suggested to handle insider threats?
Employee training, monitoring, and a culture of reporting suspicious activities.
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14
What is the function of a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
It inspects HTTP traffic to prevent common web application attacks such as cross-site scripting and SQL injections.
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15
How does the principle of least privilege relate to user access?
Users are granted only the access necessary to perform their job functions.
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16
What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
A security process that requires users to provide multiple methods of identification to verify their identity.
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17
What is vulnerability scanning?
The automated process of probing systems, networks, or applications for known vulnerabilities.
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18
What does the term 'Digital Forensics' refer to?
The systematic investigation and analysis of digital devices and data to uncover evidence for legal purposes.
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19
What is threat intelligence?
The analysis and application of knowledge about existing or emerging hazards to an organization's assets.
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20
Why is patch management important in cybersecurity?
It involves applying updates to fix vulnerabilities, thereby protecting systems against exploits.
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21
What is the main goal of an incident response plan?
To minimize the impacts of security incidents on the organization.
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22
What does DLP stand for in data protection?
Data Loss Prevention.
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23
What does SIEM stand for and its primary function?
Security Information and Event Management; it integrates security information from multiple sources for analysis and alert generation.
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24
Which attack involves sending unsolicited messages via Bluetooth?
Bluejacking.
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25
What does LDAP stand for and its purpose?
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol; it is used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information.
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26
What is a brute-force attack?
An attempt to guess passwords or encryption keys by trying every possible combination.
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27
What is the primary goal of Social Engineering attacks?
To manipulate individuals into breaching security practices through exploitation of human psychology.
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28
What common action is recommended for securing mobile devices?
Implementing Mobile Device Management (MDM) solutions.
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29
What is the consequence of a successful SQL Injection attack?
The attacker may gain unauthorized access to the database and manipulate its data.
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30
What two key aspects are involved in auditing systems?
Configuration auditing and compliance verification.
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31
What is the significance of a secure baseline?
It establishes a standard security posture for systems to minimize vulnerabilities.
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32
What defines a secure software development lifecycle?
Incorporating security practices throughout the software development process, from design to deployment.
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33
What does encryption achieve in data protection?
It transforms data into a code to prevent unauthorized access.
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34
What is the purpose of a data retention policy?
To define the guidelines for how long data should be stored and when it should be disposed of.
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35
What are common indicators of compromise (IoC)?
Signs of a potential security breach, such as account lockouts and concurrent session usage.
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36
What is a denial-of-service (DoS) attack?
An attack intent on making a computer or server's resources unavailable to its intended users.
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37
What is privilege escalation in cybersecurity?
The exploitation of a vulnerability to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected.
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38
What is the benefit of using multifactor authentication (MFA)?
It provides an additional layer of security for user verification and reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access.
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39
What should be included in a resilience and recovery strategy?
Regular testing and validation of recovery plans to ensure they are effective during incidents.
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40
What does the term 'sandboxing' refer to in application security?
Isolating running programs to prevent them from accessing critical resources on the host.
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41

What is the purpose of a data retention policy?

To define the guidelines for how long data should be stored and when it should be disposed of.
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42

What is malware?

Malware is malicious software designed to harm, exploit, or otherwise compromise computers, networks, or devices.
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43
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