MA Exam Study Guide

t/f: medical assistants are authorized to prescribe medications

false; while they cannot prescribe, they must support the pt.’s understanding of meds, manage inventory, and administer of the meds

a specific set of standards that a medical professional may perform within the limits of the medical license, registration, and/or certification

scope of practice

t/f: an MA can be cross-trained to perform both administrative and clinical duties

true

who is USUALLY responsible for obtaining medical histories from patients, providing pt. education, performing lab tests, and prepping + administering immunizations

the MA

t/f: the scope of practice for MAs includes the practice of medicine

false; the MA is not a doctor, they should not perform any duties that they are not trained or certified to do

who determines scope of practice for MAs?

the state (can be narrowed by provider approval)

CMAA

certified medical administrative assistant

CPT

certified phlebotomy technician

CET

certified EKG technician

CBCS

certified billing and coding specialist

CEHRS

certified electronic health records specialist

t/f: MAs can seek out additional certifications such as CPT and widen their scope of practice

true

What are the primary types of providers that an MA assists?

doctors (MD/DO), PAs, or NPs

what does a medical laboratory technician do?

perform diagnostic testing on blood, bodily fluids, and other specimens under the supervision of a medical technologist

what does a medical receptionist do?

check patients in and out, answer phones, schedule appointments, and perform other administrative tasks

what does a occupation therapists do?

assist patients who have conditions that disable them developmentally, emotionally, mentally, or physically

what does a pharmacy technician do?

may perform routine medication dispensing functions that do not require the expertise or judgment of a licensed pharmacist. MUST work under direct supervision of a pharmacist

what does a physical therapist do?

assist patients in improving mobility, strength, and range of motion

what does a radiology technician do?

use various imaging equipment to assist the provider in diagnosing and treating certain diseases

Which of the following profession may have a scope that includes managing patient care independently? (select all that apply)

A. medical providers

B. physician assistants

C. nurse practitioners

D. osteopathic providers

A + D

do MAs have to be licensed?

no, as of 2022. sometimes, certification for the medical assistant may be required though.

advantages of certifications

increased initial job placement, higher wages, and career advancement opportunities

how many hours of CEs does an MA need to complete to renew certification?

10 hours

the process of a state/territory granting a license to an applicant who is licensed in good standing at the equivalent designation in another jurisdiction

endorsement

agreement or arrangement that allowes resident licensees of one reciprocal state to obtain a license in another reciprocal state

reciprocity

what is inpatient care?

care that occurs while the patient is admitted to hospital or facility.

what is ambulatory care?

care received in an outpatient facility

primary care clinics, specialty care clinics, home health, mobile health units, and hospice are examples of

outpatient facilities

what is a patient-centered medical home (PCMH)

a care deliver model in which a PCP coordinates treatment to ensure patients receive the required care when and where they need it and in a way they can understand;PCMH is a team-based approach to health care in which a provider leads an interprofessional team to work collaboratively and effectively for their patients.

what indicates need of in-person evaluation instead of a telehealth visit?

diagnostic testing (imaging or lab work), new pain symptoms, physical examination

fee-for-service model

providers and medical facilities bill insurance and patients for services provided; every exam, service, test, and procedure has an associated procedural code and charge; this model incentivizes healthcare providers to deliver more treatments and services

what is a risk of the fee-for-service model?

unnecessary visits, tests, and procedures for the profit of those providing care

value-cased plans

more holistic charging for improved patient outcomes, satisfaction, lower cost, and health care professional well-being; focuses on quality over quantity in healthcare delivery.

what type of billing model is used more often in US healthcare systems?

fee-for-service, but more and more providers are using value-based plans

managed care model

an umbrella term for plans that provide health care in return for preset scheduled payments and coordinated care through a defined network of providers and hospitals

capitation (partial or full)q

patients are assigned a per-member, per-month payment based on age, race, sex, lifestyle, medical history, and benefit design; payment rates are tied to expected usage regardless of how often the patient visits

what is a downfall of capitation?

providers are incentivized to avoid high-cost procedures to maximize their compensation

health maintenance organization (HMO)

this plan contracts with a medical center or group of providers to provide preventive and acute care for the insured person. HMOs generally require referrals to specialists, as well as precertification and preauthorization for hospital admissions, outpatient procedures, and treatments

preferred provider organization (PPO)

these plans have more flexibility than HMO plans. An insured person does not need a PCP and can go directly to a specialist without referrals. Although patients can see providers in or out of their network, an in-network provider usually costs less

point-of-service (POS)

allow a great deal of flexibility for patients. They can self-refer to specialists and do not need an assigned PCP. Like PPO, the cost depends on whether the providers they see are within the plan's panel

allergist

evaluates disorders and diseases of the immune system, including adverse reactions to meds and food, anaphylaxis, problems related to autoimmune disease, and asthma

anesthesiologist

manages pain or administers sedation medications during surgical proceduresca

cardiologist

diagnoses and treats diseases or conditions of the heart and blood vesselsd

dermatologist

diagnoses and treats skin conditions

endocrinologist

diagnosts and treats hormonal and glandular conditions; often works with diabetic patients

gastroenterologists

manage diseases of GI tract

gynecologist

diagnoses and treats internal reproductive system and fertility disorders

hematologist

diagnoses and treats blood and blood-producing organs, patients who have anemia, leukemia, and lymphoma

hepatologists

study and treat disease related to the liver, biliary tree, gallbladder, and pancreas

neonatologist

provides care of newborns, specifically those that are ill or prematuren

nephrologist

manages diseases and disorders of the kidney and its associated structureso

obstetrician

provides care off patients during and after pregnancyo

oncologist

treats and provides care for patients who have cancer

opthalmologist

diagnoses and treats diseases and conditions of the eye

orthopedist

treats injuries and diseases of the bones, joints, ,uscles, tendons, and ligaments

neurologist

treats diseases and disorders of the brain and nervous systems

otolaryngologist

ENT

pediatrician

manages newborn to adolescent health

psychiatrist

diagnoses and treats mental disorders and conditions

radiologist

uses and interprets imaging to detect abnormalities in the bodyu

urologist

manages disorders of the urinary tract

indication: relieve pain

examples: acetaminophen, hydrocodon, codeine

analgesics

indication: GERD

examples: esomeprazole, calcium carbonate, famotidine

antacids/anti-ulcer

indication: bacterial infections

examples: amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, sulfamethoxazole

antibiotics

indication: smooth muscle spasms

examples: ipratopium, dicyclomine, hyoscyamine

anticholinergics

indication: delay blood clotting

examples: warfarin, apixaban, heparin

anticoagulants

indication: prevent or control seizures

examples: clonazepam, phenytoin, gabapentin

anticonvulsants

indication: relieve depression

examples: doxepin, fluoxetine, duloxetine, selegiline

antidepressants

indication: reduce diarrhea

examples: bismuth subsalicylate, loperamide, dipehnoxylate/atropine

antidiarrheals

indication: reduce nausea, vomiting

examples: metoclopramide, ondansetron

antiemetics

indication: fungal infections

examples: fluconazole, nystatin, miconazole

antifungals

indication: relieve allergies

examples: diphenhydramine, cetirizine, loratadine

antihistamines

indication: lower BP

examples: metoprolol, lisinipril, valsartan, clonidine

antihypertensives

indication: reduce inflammation

examples: ibuprofen, celecoxib, naproxen

anti-inflammatories

indication: lower cholesterol

examples: atorvastatin, fenofibrate, cholestyramine

antilipemics

indication: relieve migraine headaches

examples: topiramate, sumatriptan, rizatriptan, zolmitriptan

antimigraine agents

indication: improve bone density

examples: alendronate, raloxifene, calcitonin

anti-oseoporosis agents

indication: psychosis

examples: quetiapine, haloperidol, risperidone

antipsychotics

indication: fevers

examples: acetaminophen, ibuprofen, aspirin

antipyretics

indication: muscle spasms

examples: cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol, carisoprodol

skeletal/muscle relaxants

indication: control cough, promote elimination of mucus

examples: dextropethorphan, codeine, guaifenesin

antitussives/expectorants

indication: viral infection

examples: acyclovir, interferon, oseltamivir

antivirals

indication: reduce anxiety

examples: clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam

anxiolytics

indication: relax airway muscles

examples: albuterol, isoproterenol, theophylline

bronchodilators

indication: reduce hyperactivity

examples: methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, lisdexamfetamine

CNS stimulants

indication: prevent pregnancy

examples: medroxyprogesteron acetate, ethinyl estradiol, drospirenone

contraceptives

indication: relieve nasal congestion

examples: pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine, oxymetazoline

decongestants

indication: eliminate excess fluid

examples: furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, bumetanide

diuretics

indication: stabilize hormone deficiencies

examples: levothyroxine, insulin, desmopressin, estrogen

hormone replacements

indication: promote BMs

examples: magnesium hydroxide, bisacodyl, docusate sodium

laxatives, stool softeners

indication: reduce blood glucose

examples: metformin, glyburide, pioglitazone

oral hypoglycemics

indication: induce sleep/relaxation

examples: zolpidem, temazepam, eszopiclone

sedative-hypnotics

statute that identifies all regulated substances into one of five schedules depending on potential for abuse (how addictive they are)

controlled substances act

substances with high potential for abuse, NOT approved for medical use in the US (illegal)

ex: heroin, LSD, marijuana in some states

schedule I substances

substances that have high potential for abuse, considered dangerous, but is approved for medical use in the US

ex: morphine, methadone, oxycodone, hydromorphone, hydrocodone, fentanyl, and amphetamine

schedule 2 substances

substances with moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence

ex: ketamine, anabolic steroids, acetaminophen with codeine, buprenorphine

schedule 3 substances

substances with low potential for abuse and dependence

ex: tramadol and benzodiazepines

schedule 4 substances

substances that contain limited quantities of some narcotics, usually for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes

ex: diphenoxylate with atropine, guaifenesin with codeine, and pregabalin

schedule 5 substances

t/f: schedule 3, 4, and 5 controlled substances may not be filled or refilled more than 12 months after the date on which the prescription was issued and may not be refilled more than 5 times in 12 months

false; schedule 3, 4, and 5 controlled substances may not be filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date on which the prescription was issued and may not be refilled more than 5 times in 6 months

therapeutic effects

effects for which providers prescribe the meds