Infectious Diseases Exam 1 (Ernst) 2nd lecture

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Last updated 5:48 PM on 3/28/26
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110 Terms

1
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in the selection process, what relates to the patient and the bug?

-immune status

-site of infection

-age

2
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in the selection process, what relates to the bug and the drug?

-susceptibility

-site of infection

-protein binding

-pH

3
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in the selection process, what relates to the drug and the patient?

-immune status

-PK

-toxicity

-organ function

-PD

4
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what are the steps of the selection process with antimicrobial drug therapy?

-establish need for antimicrobial therapy

-attempt to identify pathogen

-select empiric antimicrobial therapy

-monitor therapy for efficacy and toxicity

-refine antimicrobial therapy for definitive identification of pathogen and infection

5
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when might an infection be suspected?

when there are signs of inflammation, such as fever, pain, swelling, or redness

6
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if a person has a fever, does that mean they are infectious?

NO, there are many non-infectious things that can cause fevers

7
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what are some clinical signs of infection?

-increased WBC

-ESR

-CRP

-LFTs

-PCT elevation

8
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what is a gram stain?

test done to identify organisms based on cell wall structure and morphology

9
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what can a gram stain be performed on?

-sputum

-urine

-CSF

-wound specimens

10
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what color do gram positive organisms stain?

purple

11
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what color do gram negative organisms stain?

red

12
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list examples of gram positive organisms

-Staphylococci

-Pneumococci

-Streptococci

-Listeria

-Cutibacterium

-Corynebacterium

-Clostridium

-Bacillus

13
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list examples of gram negative organisms

-Neisseria meningitidis

-Neisseria gonorrhoeae

-Escherichia coli

-Klebsiella spp.

-Enterobacter spp.

-Citrobacter spp.

-Pseudomonas spp.

-Salmonella spp.

-Shigella spp.

-Haemophilus influenzae

14
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what are gram positive cocci in clusters?

Staphylococcus

15
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what are coagulase negative Staphylococcus?

-Staphylococcus epidermidis

-Staphylococcus saprophyticus

16
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what are coagulase positive Staphylococcus?

Staphylococcus aureus

17
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what are gram positive cocci in pairs or chains?

Streptococcus or Enterococcus

18
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list examples of gram-negative bacilli

-Escherichia coli

-Klebsiella spp

-Enterobacter spp

-Serratia marcescens

-Proteus spp

-Pseudomonas aeruginosa

-Haemophilus influenzae

19
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list examples of gram negative cocci

-Moraxella catarrhalis

-Neisseria spp

20
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what are examples of non gram staining bacteria?

-Chlamydia spp

-Mycoplasma pneumoniae

-Legionella spp

-Mycobacteria

-Rickettsiae

-Spirochetes

21
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list examples of viral organisms that do not gram stain

-influenza A and B

-hepatitis viruses

-cytomegaloviruses

22
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where do gram positive anaerobes generally reside?

mouth and upper GI tract

23
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list examples of gram positive anaerobes

-Peptostreptococcus

-Peptococcus

-Propionibacterium acnes

-Clostridium spp

-Finegoldia magna

-Anaerococcus spp

24
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where do gram negative anaerobes generally reside?

lower GI tract

25
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list examples of gram negative anaerobes

-Bacteroides fragilis

-Prevotella

26
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what are benefits of rapid diagnostic technologies?

-quickly identify pathogens

-streamline antimicrobial therapy

-improve infection control measures

-results available in 15 minutes to a few hours

27
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what can rapid antigen tests be used to test for?

-group A strep

-influenza

28
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what is a limitation of rapid antigen tests?

test may remain positive even if patient is recovered

29
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what can immunofluorescence test for?

-CMV

-RSV

-syphilis

-Lyme disease

30
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what can ELISA test for?

-HIV

-HSV

-Neisseria gonorrhoeae

31
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what is an AFB test used for?

mycobacteria

32
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what is india ink used to test for?

cryptococcus

33
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what does potassium hydroxide test for?

fungal pathogens

34
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what do serologic tests look for?

nonspecific or specific antibodies

35
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what is a DNA probe hybridization test?

DNA FISH that looks for evidence of organisms

36
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what is MALDI-TOF used for?

detection of bacteria and yeast

37
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what is MIC?

lowest concentration of an agent that inhibits the visible growth of an organism in vitro

38
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what is MBC?

lowest concentration of an agent which results in a 99.9% reduction in colony forming units

39
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what are methods for determining the MIC?

-macro-broth dilution

-micro-broth dilution

-agar dilution

-Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion

-epsilometer strip

40
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how is a zone of inhibition used to determine if an organism is susceptible?

diameter of zone of inhibition is compared to the list to see if the zone is big enough for the organism to be considered susceptible

41
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on an E test, how is the MIC determined?

by the point at which the zone of inhibition intersects the test strip

42
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what are breakpoint values?

system developed to evaluate MIC results

43
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what are breakpoint values based on?

-drug pharmacokinetics

-distribution of MICs

-clinical efficacy

44
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what does it mean if an organism has a low MIC?

they are more likely to be killed than isolates with high MICs

45
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what does an MIC50 mean?

MIC that inhibits 50% of organisms

46
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what are limitations of MICs?

-do not provide information regarding the rate or extent of killing

-conducted with standard inoculum

-lack of plasma proteins and complement

47
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what are factors that influence potential pathogens?

-patient characteristics

-age

-immune status

-comorbid conditions

-site of infection

48
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what commonly causes meningitis in neonates?

-E. coli

-Strep agalactiae

-Listeria monocytogenes

-Klebsiella

49
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what commonly causes meningitis in adults?

-Strep pneumoniae

-N. meningitidis

50
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what does empiric therapy usually target?

broad spectrum of potential pathogens

51
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what is an antibiogram used for?

selection of empirical regimens before ID and susceptibility results are known

52
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what needs to be done regarding allergies when choosing an antimicrobial regimen?

properly assess and distinguish them from adverse effects and watch for cross reactivity

53
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what needs to be considered when choosing an antimicrobial regimen and avoiding toxicity?

monitor renal function and pre-existing organ impairment

54
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what is the Cockroft and Gault equation?

CrCl = ((140-age) x LBW) / (SCr x 72) (all x 0.85 if female)

55
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what is the equation for LBW in males?

50 + 2.3(inches over 5')

56
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what is the equation for LBW in females?

45.5 + 2.3(inches over 5')

57
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when should adjusted weight be used in Cockcroft Gault?

if actual body weight is >20% over LBW or BMI > 25

58
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what is the equation for adjusted body weight?

LBW + 0.4(actual - LBW)

59
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what drugs need to be dose adjusted for Childs Pugh classification?

-caspofungin

-voriconazole

-tigecycline

-eravacycline

60
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what factors impact Childs Pugh classification?

-ascites

-bilirubin

-albumin

-INR

-encephalopathy

61
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what do liver transaminases indicate?

acute liver toxicity/injury, NOT liver function

62
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what does a Childs Pugh classification of 5-6 mean?

mild liver disease

63
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what does a Childs Pugh classification of 7-9 mean?

moderate liver disease

64
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what does a Childs Pugh classification of 10-15 mean?

severe liver disease

65
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what can site of infection impact with antimicrobials?

antimicrobial selection

66
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what are underlying conditions that may impact antimicrobial therapy?

chronic illness, pregnancy

67
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why is dosing of antimicrobials in obesity difficult?

there is decreased reliability of renal function estimating equations and alterations in drug distribution

68
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what is pharmacokinetics?

fate of an agent within a system characterized by absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination

69
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what is pharmacodynamics?

characteristics of the interaction between a xenobiotic, its active site, and pharmacological action

70
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what makes up pharmacodynamics of antimicrobials?

-concentration/activity relationships

-postantibiotic effect

71
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describe concentration-dependent bactericidal activity

rate and/or extent of bactericidal activity increases with increasing antimicrobial concentrations

72
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what is the goal of a concentration-dependent bactericidal activity?

to optimize the peak:MIC for higher bacteria killing

73
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what are antimicrobials that exhibit concentration-dependent bactericidal activity?

-aminoglycosides

-fluoroquinolones

-metronidazole

-amphotericin B

-daptomycin

74
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describe non-concentration-dependent bactericidal activity

rate and extent of killing do not increase with increasing antibiotic concentrations, but rather bactericidal activity is increased by increasing the length of exposure

75
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what is the goal of a non-concentration-dependent bactericidal activity?

optimize the time concentrations to remain above the MIC

76
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what is the efficacy of non-concentration-dependent agents dependent on?

trough concentrations

77
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what can be used to optimize the activity of non-concentration-dependent bactericidal activity and keep t>MIC?

continuous infusion and extended infusion

78
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what are antimicrobials that exhibit concentration-independent killing?

-beta-lactams

-glycopeptides

-clindamycin

-macrolides

-fluconazole

79
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what is the post-antibiotic effect (PAE)?

persistent suppression of bacterial growth following a brief exposure to an antimicrobial

80
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what can the post-antibiotic effect be a result of?

-non-lethal cell damage

-persistence of the antimicrobial at the binding site

81
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what factors can affect the post-antibiotic effect?

-microorganism

-antimicrobial

-length of antimicrobial exposure

-antimicrobial concentration

82
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how should agents that exhibit concentration-dependent killing and have long post-antibiotic effects be administered?

as large, infrequent doses to maximize their pharmacodynamic properties

83
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what dosing regimen has been studied to optimize the antibacterial activity of aminoglycosides?

once-daily dosing

84
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with traditional dosing of aminoglycosides, what is the desired peak concentration?

8-10

85
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with traditional dosing of aminoglycosides, what is the desired trough concentration?

less than 2

86
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with synergy of aminoglycosides for gram positive infections, what is the desired peak concentration?

3-4

87
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if the CrCl is >60, what is the initial interval of dosing for aminoglycosides?

24 hours

88
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if the CrCl is 40-59, what is the initial interval of dosing for aminoglycosides?

36 hours

89
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if the CrCl is 30-39, what is the initial interval of dosing for aminoglycosides?

48 hours

90
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if the CrCl is <30, what is the initial interval of dosing for aminoglycosides?

use traditional dosing

91
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what are some good reminders when monitoring levels of a drug?

check drug admin time and time the level was obtained

92
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what peak:MIC correlates best with outcome for fluoroquinolones?

10:1 to 20:1

93
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what is the target AUC:MIC for gram negative organisms when treating with fluoroquinolones?

125:1

94
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what is the target AUC:MIC for gram positive organisms when treating with fluoroquinolones?

30-40 or greater

95
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how should agents that exhibit concentration-independent killing and have relatively short/no post-antibiotic effect be dosed?

frequent dosing, continuous infusions, or extended infusions

96
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what could a continuous infusion of a beta-lactam do for its serum concentrations?

provide serum concentrations above the MIC of a pathogen for 100% of the dosing interval

97
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if continuous infusion of beta lactams is used, what should the rate of infusion be targeted at?

to maintain serum concentrations at least 4 times the MIC

98
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what is the continuous infusion regimen of penicillin?

24 MU over 24 hours by continuous infusion

99
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what is the continuous infusion regimen of piperacillin/tazobactam?

3.375 g over 4 hours every 8 hours

100
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what AUC:MIC is associated with better outcomes for Staph aureus when using vancomycin?

AUC:MIC >400

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