GCSE Edexcel B Geography Paper 2

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176 Terms

1
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Q: What is geology?

A: The study of the structure and substance of rocks.

2
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Q: What are past tectonic processes that influenced the UK’s landscape?

A: Volcanic eruptions and tectonic uplift.

3
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Q: What is glacial erosion by plucking?

A: When ice freezes onto rock surfaces and removes sediment as the glacier moves.

4
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Q: What is glacial erosion by abrasion?

A: When sediment embedded in the glacier scrapes and scours the valley floor and sides.

5
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Q: What is freeze-thaw weathering?

A: Water enters cracks in rocks, freezes and expands, splitting the rock apart.

6
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Q: What is glacial deposition?

A: Sediment left behind as a glacier retreats, forming till and moraine.

7
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Q: What are the main characteristics of upland landscapes?

A: Resistant igneous and metamorphic rocks forming U-shaped valleys and scree slopes.

8
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Q: What are the main characteristics of lowland landscapes?

A: Softer sedimentary rocks forming dip slopes and escarpments.

9
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Q: How are sedimentary rocks formed?

A: By compacted layers of eroded material or organic remains over time and pressure.

10
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Q: Give examples of sedimentary rocks.

A: Chalk, carboniferous limestone, clay.

11
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Q: Why are younger sedimentary rocks less resistant?

A: They are less consolidated and weather more easily.

12
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Q: How are igneous rocks formed?

A: From cooling magma.

13
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Q: Give an example of an igneous rock.

A: Granite.

14
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Q: How resistant are igneous rocks to erosion?

A: Extremely resistant.

15
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Q: How are metamorphic rocks formed?

A: When existing rocks are altered by heat and/or pressure.

16
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Q: Give examples of metamorphic rocks.

A: Slate and schist.

17
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Q: Where in the UK are igneous and metamorphic rocks found?

A: Mainly in the north and west (Scotland and Wales).

18
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Q: What are examples of upland areas formed by hard rocks?

A: Cambrian Mountains and Grampian Mountains.

19
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Q: What landforms are found on Dartmoor and Bodmin Moor?

A: Granite tors and moorland formed by igneous rock outcrops.

20
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Q: What sedimentary upland is formed of carboniferous limestone?

A: The Pennines.

21
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Q: Where are sedimentary lowlands found?

A: South and east England (The Fens, Norfolk Broads, Somerset Levels).

22
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Q: What are dip slopes?

A: Gently sloping areas following the folds of rock layers.

23
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Q: What are escarpments?

A: Steep slopes formed by differential erosion of resistant and less resistant rocks.

24
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Q: What are the main processes shaping upland areas?

A: Physical, chemical and biological weathering, and glacial erosion.

25
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Q: What are U-shaped valleys caused by?

A: Glacial movement eroding valley sides and floors through plucking and abrasion.

26
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Q: What are hanging valleys?

A: Smaller valleys left higher than the main glacial valley after erosion.

27
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Q: What causes scree slopes?

A: Freeze-thaw weathering breaking rocks on steep slopes.

28
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Q: What are outwash plains?

A: Areas of glacial sediment deposited by meltwater.

29
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Q: What are misfit streams?

A: Small rivers flowing through oversized glacial valleys.

30
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Q: What shapes lowland landscapes?

A: Weathering, erosion, and deposition in warmer, vegetated environments.

31
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Q: What human activities dominate upland areas?

A: Sheep farming, coniferous forestry, and tourism.

32
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Q: What human activities dominate lowland areas?

A: Arable farming, settlements, and deciduous forestry.

33
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Q: Why is arable farming more common in lowlands?

A: Fertile soil, gentle slopes, and a longer growing season.

34
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Q: What is a concordant coastline?

A: Rock layers are parallel to the coastline.

35
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Q: What is a discordant coastline?

A: Alternating rock types are at right angles to the coastline.

36
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Q: What features form on discordant coastlines?

A: Headlands and bays.

37
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Q: What is the sequence of erosion on a headland?

A: Crack → cave → arch → stack → stump.

38
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Q: How do soft rock coasts erode?

A: By mass movement such as rotational slumping.

39
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Q: What is a wave-cut platform?

A: A flat rocky area left after cliff retreat.

40
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Q: When does coastal erosion increase in the UK?

A: During autumn and winter due to more storms.

41
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Q: How do prevailing winds affect erosion?

A: Longer fetch and stronger winds create larger destructive waves.

42
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Q: What are destructive waves?

A: High-energy waves with strong backwash causing erosion.

43
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Q: What are constructive waves?

A: Low-energy waves with strong swash causing deposition.

44
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Q: What is longshore drift?

A: The zig-zag movement of sediment along a coastline due to wave direction.

45
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Q: What landforms result from longshore drift?

A: Spits, bars, and tombolos.

46
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Q: What is the economic importance of the UK coastline?

A: It supports millions of jobs and key industries like ports and tourism.

47
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Q: How can dredging affect coastlines?

A: It removes sediment and increases erosion down the coast.

48
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Q: What is managed retreat?

A: Allowing low-value land to flood to protect more valuable areas.

49
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Q: What is ICZM (Integrated Coastal Zone Management)?

A: Managing entire stretches of coastline considering environmental and human factors.

50
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Q: What are examples of hard engineering?

A: Sea walls, groynes, and sediment fences.

51
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Q: What are examples of soft engineering?

A: Beach replenishment and slope stabilisation.

52
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Q: Where does the River Severn start?

A: Plynlimon, in the uplands of Wales.

53
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Q: What are the main features of the upper course of a river?

A: Steep gradients, V-shaped valleys, interlocking spurs, waterfalls, and gorges.

54
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Q: What processes dominate in the upper course?

A: Vertical erosion and weathering.

55
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Q: What are meanders and oxbow lakes formed by?

A: Erosion on outer bends and deposition on inner bends.

56
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Q: What are floodplains and levees?

A: Flat valley floors and raised banks formed by river flooding and deposition.

57
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Q: What is a delta?

A: A depositional landform where a river meets a sea or lake.

58
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Q: What is lag time on a hydrograph?

A: The delay between peak rainfall and peak river discharge.

59
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Q: What conditions create a flashy hydrograph?

A: Heavy rain, impermeable rocks, steep slopes, urban areas, saturated soil.

60
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Q: What conditions create a gentle hydrograph?

A: Permeable rocks, gentle slopes, vegetation, and rural areas.

61
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Q: What caused the 2007 River Severn floods?

A: Record rainfall, urbanisation, saturated soils, and river confluence.

62
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Q: What were the impacts of the 2007 River Severn floods?

A: 48,000 homes flooded, £3.2 billion in damages, and deaths.

63
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Q: What is the main risk factor increasing UK floods?

A: Climate change increasing storm frequency and intensity.

64
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Q: What are examples of hard engineering for rivers?

A: Flood walls, embankments, and flood barriers.

65
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Q: What are examples of soft engineering for rivers?

A: Floodplain retention and river restoration.

66
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Q: What is floodplain retention?

A: Allowing land to flood to store excess water and reduce downstream risk.

67
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Q: What is river restoration?

A: Returning rivers to natural courses and removing artificial embankments.

68
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Q: What are the key elements of the human landscape?

A: Population, economic activities, and settlements.

69
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Q: What are the main differences between the UK’s urban core and rural periphery?

A: Urban core areas are built up, densely populated and economically active; rural peripheries are sparsely populated with more primary industries and ageing populations.

70
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Q: What are the characteristics of urban core areas?

A: High population density, young economically active people, many jobs in retail and offices, cultural and transport hubs, and higher property prices.

71
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Q: What are the characteristics of rural periphery areas?

A: Low population density, ageing population, primary and seasonal employment, cheaper land, and smaller settlements like villages and farms.

72
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Q: What is an enterprise zone?

A: An area where companies receive tax breaks and government support to encourage investment and reduce regional inequalities.

73
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Q: What was the aim of HS2?

A: To improve transport connectivity and reduce the North–South divide.

74
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Q: What is the EU’s Regional Development Fund?

A: A programme that supported economic regeneration, improved communications, and job creation in poorer UK regions.

75
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Q: Why did Cornwall receive EU regional development funding?

A: Its GDP was below 75% of the EU average.

76
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Q: What benefits did EU funding bring to Cornwall?

A: Improved broadband speeds, enabling remote working and local business development.

77
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Q: What are some recent UK government policies aimed at reducing inequality post-Brexit?

A: ‘Build back better’, ‘build back greener’, and ‘levelling up’.

78
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Q: What is the overall aim of post-Brexit UK development policies?

A: To improve deprived and isolated areas by investing in green jobs and infrastructure.

79
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Q: How has migration changed the UK in the last 50 years?

A: It has altered population numbers, distribution, and age structures, increasing cultural and ethnic diversity.

80
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Q: How did EU Freedom of Movement affect the UK?

A: It allowed citizens of EU countries to live and work freely in the UK, increasing international migration.

81
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Q: What migration policy change occurred after Brexit?

A: The UK began prioritising highly skilled migrants globally rather than EU citizens first.

82
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Q: What are the main pull factors for retirees moving to the South West of England?

A: Scenic landscapes, warmer climate, slower pace of life, and low crime rates.

83
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Q: What are the impacts of retirement migration on rural areas?

A: Increased demand for healthcare, rising house prices, an ageing population, and fewer working-age adults.

84
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Q: What are some positive impacts of retirement migration?

A: Creation of jobs in care and leisure industries and community volunteering by retirees.

85
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Q: Why do young adults leave rural areas?

A: To access higher education, better jobs, and more services in cities.

86
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Q: What are the impacts of rural–urban migration on rural areas?

A: Ageing populations, loss of economically active people, and reliance on primary industries.

87
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Q: What are the impacts of rural–urban migration on urban areas?

A: Population growth, studentification, and a more skilled workforce.

88
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Q: What is the main reason for North–South migration in the UK?

A: Higher wages and better services in the South.

89
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Q: What is counter-urbanisation?

A: The movement of people from cities to rural areas, often for a better quality of life.

90
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Q: Why did the UK encourage migration from former colonies after WWII?

A: To fill labour shortages in transport, textiles, and steel industries.

91
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Q: Where did many post-war migrants settle?

A: Urban core areas, particularly London.

92
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Q: What regions did later migrants from the Indian subcontinent move to?

A: Northern towns such as Bradford.

93
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Q: What was the EU Accession of 8 in 2004?

A: When eight Eastern European countries joined the EU, allowing their citizens to move freely within the EU.

94
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Q: Which nationalities formed the main group of Eastern European migrants to the UK after 2004?

A: Mainly Poles, Latvians, and Estonians.

95
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Q: Why did many Eastern Europeans move to rural UK areas?

A: For seasonal and agricultural employment.

96
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Q: What caused refugee migration to the UK between 2012 and 2015?

A: War in Syria and Afghanistan.

97
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Q: Why do most international migrants settle in or near cities?

A: Greater job opportunities, transport links, and cultural communities.

98
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Q: How do migrants contribute to the UK economy?

A: By filling both skilled (e.g., healthcare) and unskilled (e.g., construction) labour shortages.

99
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Q: What pressures can increased migration cause?

A: Strain on housing, schools, and healthcare in some areas.

100
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Q: How does migration affect population structure?

A: It can make populations younger and more diverse.