Blood Bank Final

Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?

confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor:

age: 16

temperature: 99.0 F (37.2 C)

Hct: 36%

history: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously.

How many of the above results exclude this donor from giving blood for a routinetransfusion?

1

All of the following are required tests on donor blood, except _____.

Anti-CMV

3 multiple choice options

Current testing on all donor blood must include:

(serological testing for) syphillis

The Western Blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of?

HIV antibodies

A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is?

ELISA

During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood should be processed how?

1) low-speed centrifugation 2) high-speed centrifugation

A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now what time?

The original date of the unsplit unit

Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) at -20

3 multiple choice options

According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?

24 hours

Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of donor?

Lymphocytes

An individual's red blood cells give the following reactions with Rh antisera:

anti-D anti-C anti-E anti-c anti-e Rh control

4+ 3+ 0 3+ 3+ 0

The individual's most probable genotype is:

DCe/dce

3 multiple choice options

A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype?

O

Given the following typing results, what is this donor's racial ethnicity?

Le(a-b-); Fy(a-b-); Js(a+b+)

African American

The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type how for Le(a) and Le(b)?

Le(a+b-)

In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker means?

Present in child but absent in mother and alleged father

Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by who?

Karl Landsteiner

The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha (-)?

glucosyl transferase

HLA antibodies are?

induced by multiple transfusions

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following?

P antigen

Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?

Fya

An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy, the second was jaundiced at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. What is the most likely cause?

Rh incompatibility

ABO-hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when?

Rh Incompatibility, ABO Incompatibility

Which of the following antigens in most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Kell

ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) differs from Rh HDFN how?

Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN

In testing amniotic fluid, the Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is based on:

Optical density of amniotic fluid bilirubin at 450 nm.

To prevent graft-vs-host disease, infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be transfused which type of red blood cells?

irradiated

The purpose of a low-dose irradiation of blood components is to ____.

prevent graft-vs-host disease.

3 multiple choice options

What is the most appropriate interpretation for RhIg dose with the data given below when an Rh-negative woman has an Rh-positive child?

Rosette fetal screen using enzyme treated D+ cells

mother's sample: 1 rosette/3 fields

positive control: 5 rosettes/3 fields

negative control: no rosettes observed

The results of a Kleihauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of whole blood. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required?

Mother needs 1 vial of RhIg

The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrage (FMH) as small as what volume?

10 mL

A patient in the immediate post bone marrow transplant period has a hematocrit of 21%. What red cell product should be selected for this patient? (Irradiated, regular packed, washed, etc.)

irradiated

Samples from the same patient were received on 2 consecutive days. Test results are summarized below:

Day #1 Day #2

anti-A 4+ 0

anti-B 0 4+

anti-D 3+ 3+

A1 cells 0 4+

B cells 4+ 0

Ab screen 0 0

How should the request for crossmatch be handled, which donor bloody type should be selected, what sample should be used?

collect new sample and repeat the tests

The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:

37oC IAT

screening cell I 0 3+

screening cells II 0 3+

autocontrol 0 3+

The most probable cause of these results above?

warm autoantibody

During emergency situations when there is no time to determine ABO group and Rh type on a current sample for transfusion, the patient is known to be A, Rh-negative. The technologist should release which blood type to the patient?

release O, Rh negative red blood cells

A 29 year old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB, Rh-negative. 6 units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be most preferable for crossmatch?

A, Rh negative

A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?

a false-negative result due to antigen excess

3 multiple choice options

What test is most commonly used to detect antibodies attached to a patient's red blood cells in vivo?

Direct antiglobulin test

Polyspecific reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test should have specificity for (think complement/IgG/IgM)?

IgG and C3d

AHG (Coombs) control cells are used when?

quality control check

A 56 year old female with cold agglutinin disease has a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). When the DAT is repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected: complement, IgG, IgM?

C3d

Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by:

chelating calcium (prevents C1)

The purpose of testing with anti-A, B is to detect?

subgroups of A

How many units of red blood cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70kg nonbleeding man from 24% to 30%?

2 units

A patient who is group AB, Rh-negative needs 2 units of Fresh Frozen Plasma. What blood type would be most acceptable for transfusion?

group AB, Rh-positive

Fresh Frozen Plasma contains what coagulation factors, is thawed at what degree, and once thawed how soon it should be transfused?

Contains all labile coagulation factors except cryoprecipitate. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) should be thawed at 37 degrees Celsius and transfused within 24 hours when stored at 1 to 6 degrees Celsius

In a delayed transfusion reaction, the causative antibody is generally too weak to be detected in routine compatibility testing and antibody screening tests, but is typically detectable at what point after transfusion?

3-7 days

Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Kidd

Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure?

Bacterial contamination

Hemoglobinuria, hypotension, and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

Hemolytic

Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?

TRALI

Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?

Circulatory overload