Chapter 7 for final

1. The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer to the midline is:

A) lateral.

B) medial.

C) midaxillary.

D) midclavicular.

medial

2. Topographically, the term distal means:

A) near the trunk.

B) near a point of reference.

C) farther from the trunk.

D) toward the body's midline.

farther from the trunk.

3. Which of the following structures comprise different types of tissues that work together to perform a particular function?

A) Cells

B) Organs

C) Organisms

D) Body systems

Organs

4. Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is:

A) anterior.

B) exterior.

C) inferior.

D) posterior.

posterior

5. If the body is sliced so the result is a top and bottom portion, this is referred to as the:

A) transverse plane.

B) cross section.

C) midsagittal plane.

D) body's midline.

transverse plane.

6. During your assessment of a trauma patient, you note the presence of bilateral femur fractures. This means that:

A) one femur is broken.

B) both femurs are broken.

C) one femur is broken in two places.

D) the lateral aspect of one femur is broken.

both femurs are broken.

7. The most inferior portion of the heart is called the:A) base.

B) apex.

C) volar.

D) dorsum.

apex

8. Which of the following directional terms describes the front surface of the body?

A) Dorsal

B) Ventral

C) Inferior

D) Superior

Ventral

9. An unconscious, adequately breathing patient should be placed in the recovery position, which is:

A) supine.

B) prone.

C) semi-sitting.

D) laterally recumbent.

laterally recumbent

Which of the following describes the shock position?

A) The head and torso are supine and the legs are elevated 6" to 12".

B) The head is elevated at a 45° angle and the legs are elevated 8".

C) The body is supine with the head down and the legs elevated.

D) The body is laterally recumbent and the head is lowered.

A) The head and torso are supine and the legs are elevated 6" to 12".

11. Movement of an extremity toward the midline of the body is called:

A) supination.

B) pronation.

C) adduction.

D) abduction.

adduction

12. The most common solvent in the body, in which solutes or other substances will dissolve, is:

A) blood.

B) water.

C) plasma.

D) bile.

water

13. Substances that release ions when dissolved in water are called:

A) neutrons.

B) exocytes.

C) endocytes.

D) electrolytes.

electrolytes

14. If too much water enters a cell during osmosis, it will burst. This process is called:

A) diffusion.

B) crenation.

C) lysis.

D) viscosity.

lysis

15. Any cell that ingests microorganisms or other cells is called a(n):

A) phagocyte.

B) endocyte.

C) exocyte.

D) pinocyte.

phagocyte

16. The substance that contains all the cellular contents between the cell membrane and the nucleus is called the:

A) protoplasm.

B) cytoplasm.

C) Golgi apparatus.

D) endoplasmic reticulum.

cytoplasm

17. When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of:

A) aerobic metabolism.

B) anaerobic metabolism.

C) anaerobic anabolism.

D) aerobic catabolism.

anaerobic metabolism.

18. What type of tissue covers and lines internal organs?

A) Connective

B) Muscle

C) Epithelial

D) Striated

Epithelial

All of the following are voluntary muscles, EXCEPT:

A) skeletal muscle.

B) smooth muscle.

C) striated muscle.

D) somatic muscle.

B) smooth muscle.

20. The projection of the neurons that receives electrical impulses from other neurons is called a(n):

A) dendrite.

B) axon.

C) neuroglia.

D) motor fiber.

dendrite

The integumentary system includes all of the following structures, EXCEPT:

A) the epidermis.

B) sweat glands.

C) hair follicles.

D) blood vessels.

D) blood vessels.

22. The average total body water content of an adult is approximately ____% of his or her body weight.

A) 50

B) 60

C) 70

D) 80

60

24. The brain and spinal cord are connected through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:

A) foramen magnum.

B) lamboid suture.

C) vertebral foramen.

D) mastoid process.

foramen magnum.

25. What is the cribriform plate?

A) Superior surface of the cranial vault that protects the cerebrum

B) Saddle-shaped depression in the middle of the sphenoid bone

C) Opening through which the brainstem passes from the cerebrum

D) Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass

Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass

All of the following are facial bones, EXCEPT the:

A) maxilla.

B) parietal.

C) palatine.

D) lacrimal.

B) parietal.

Which of the following statements regarding the thyroid cartilage is correct?

A) It is the anterior part of the larynx.

B) It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage.

C) It is not easily seen in most people.

D) It lies directly posterior to the larynx.

A) It is the anterior part of the larynx.

28. Which portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis?

A) Thoracic

B) Sacral

C) Lumbar

D) Coccyx

Sacral

29. The point where the first cervical vertebra (C1) articulates with the base of the skull is called the:

A) atlanto-occipital joint.

B) odontoid process.

C) vertebral foramen.

D) vertebra prominens.

atlanto-occipital joint.

30. The upper section of the sternum is called the:

A) jugular notch.

B) xiphoid process.

C) angle of Louis.

D) manubrium.

manubrium.

31. The first and second cervical vertebrae are called the:

A) axis and dens.

B) atlas and axis.

C) dens and atlas.

D) odontoid and axis.

atlas and axis.

Which of the following organs/structures lie(s) in the retroperitoneal space of the abdomen?

A) Liver

B) Spleen

C) Kidneys

D) Superior vena cava

C) Kidneys

33. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint where the humeral head articulates with the:

A) acromion process.

B) glenoid fossa.

C) acetabulum.

D) popliteal fossa.

glenoid fossa.

34. The shoulders and hips are examples of __________ joints.

A) biaxial

B) triaxial

C) monoaxial

D) diarthrotic

triaxial

35. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata collectively form the:

A) cerebellum.

B) cerebral cortex.

C) diencephalon.

D) brainstem.

brainstem

36. The reticular activating system is located in the __________ and regulates:

A) occipital lobe, sight.

B) brainstem, breathing.

C) midbrain, consciousness.

D) cerebellum, motor function.

midbrain, consciousness.

37. A patient with a left-hemispheric stroke would be expected to have:

A) contralateral facial drooping.

B) ipsilateral facial drooping.

C) ipsilateral extremity weakness.

D) contralateral pupillary changes.

ipsilateral facial drooping.

38. Cerebrospinal fluid is manufactured in the:

A) subarachnoid space.

B) ventricles of the brain.

C) posterior pituitary gland.

D) anterior pituitary gland.

ventricles of the brain.

39. Tiny particles that compose elements and vary in size and weight are called:

A) atoms.

B) electrons.

C) isotopes.

D) molecules.

atoms

40. The most important nerve of the cervical plexus, which innervates the diaphragm, is the:

A) vagus nerve.

B) trochlear nerve.

C) abducens nerve.

D) phrenic nerve.

phrenic nerve.

41. The olfactory nerve (CN I) is responsible for:

A) vision.

B) sight.

C) smell.

D) hearing.

smell

42. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves arise from the:

A) somatic nervous system.

B) autonomic nervous system.

C) voluntary nervous system.

D) adrenal nervous system.

autonomic nervous system.

43. During your assessment of a patient, you note that he is bradycardic, hypotensive, and salivating. These clinical findings suggest:

A) sympathetic nervous system stimulation.

B) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.

C) sympathetic nervous system depression.

D) parasympathetic nervous system depression.

parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.

44. Stimulation of alpha receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in:

A) tachycardia.

B) bronchodilation.

C) peripheral vasodilation.

D) peripheral vasoconstriction.

peripheral vasoconstriction.

45. The catecholamine epinephrine (adrenaline) has an affinity for:

A) alpha and beta receptors.

B) alpha-1 receptors only.

C) beta-1 receptors only.

D) alpha-1 and beta-2 receptors.

alpha and beta receptors.

All of the following are endocrine glands, EXCEPT the:

A) adrenal glands.

B) thymus gland.

C) sweat glands.

D) pituitary gland.

C) sweat glands.

Which of the following stimulate(s) hormone secretion and influence(s) sodium and water movements in the kidney, helping to regulate blood pressure?

A) Loop of Henle

B) Prostaglandins

C) Pituitary gland

D) Corticosteroids

B) Prostaglandins

48. Decreased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) result in:

A) oliguria and dehydration.

B) anuria and diabetes mellitus.

C) polyuria and diabetes insipidus.

D) increased fluid retention.

polyuria and diabetes insipidus.

50. The thyroid gland is responsible for the:

A) release of TSH.

B) breakdown of glycogen.

C) production of glucose.

D) metabolic rate.

metabolic rate.

51. Insulin and glucagon are produced in specialized groups of cells in the pancreas known as the:

A) adrenal islets.

B) islets of Langerhans.

C) medullary cortex.

D) adrenal medulla.

islets of Langerhans.

52. A patient is found to have a high blood sugar level (hyperglycemia). What is a cause of this?

A) Excessive insulin levels in the blood

B) Decreased production of glucagon

C) Deficient insulin levels in the blood

D) Hyperactivity of the pancreatic beta cells

Deficient insulin levels in the blood

Which of the following substances are vital in the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

B) Aldosterone and dopamine

C) Cortisol and epinephrine

D) Aldosterone and cortisol

A) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

All of the following are formed components of the blood, EXCEPT:

A) plasma.

B) platelets.

C) red blood cells.

D) white blood cells.

plasma

55. What is the total blood volume for a man who weighs 75 kg?

A) 4.8 L

B) 5.3 L

C) 6.1 L

D) 6.6 L

5.3 L

56. The ongoing process by which red blood cells are made is called:

A) diapedesis.

B) phagocytosis.

C) hematopoiesis.

D) erythropoiesis.

erythropoiesis

Which of the following organs contain(s) the greatest number of lymphocytes?

A) Liver

B) Pancreas

C) Spleen

D) Kidneys

C) Spleen

Which of the following statements regarding type O blood is correct?

A) It contains no surface antigens.

B) It contains type A surface antigens.

C) It contains type B surface antigens.

D) It contains both type A and B surface antigens.

A) It contains no surface antigens.

59. A protein of the immune system that recognizes foreign substances is called a(n):

A) bilirubin.

B) antigen.

C) pathogen.

D) antibody.

antibody

Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell?

A) Eosinophil

B) Neutrophil

C) Granulocyte

D) Histamine

D) Histamine

61. Phagocytosis is the process by which:

A) phagocytes are produced.

B) phagocytes are destroyed.

C) monocytes digest microbes.

D) microbes destroy monocytes.

monocytes digest microbes.

62. The body's ability to spontaneously cease bleeding is called:

A) fibrinolysis.

B) hemostasis.

C) homeostasis.

D) thrombolysis.

hemostasis

63. Approximately two thirds of the heart muscle lies within a space in the thoracic cavity called the:

A) mediastinum.

B) hemithorax.

C) pericardium.

D) endocardium.

mediastinum

64. The thick fibrous membrane that surrounds the heart is called the:

A) pericardium.

B) myocardium.

C) epicardium.

D) endocardium.

pericardium

65. Blood enters the right atrium of the heart from the:

A) vena cava and aorta.

B) aorta and coronary sinus.

C) pulmonary vein and aorta.

D) vena cavae and coronary sinus.

vena cavae and coronary sinus.

66. What type of valves are the aortic and pulmonic valves?

A) Papillary

B) Chordis

C) Semilunar

D) Atrioventricular

Semilunar

67. Freshly oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium through the:

A) pulmonary veins.

B) pulmonary arteries.

C) superior vena cava.

D) inferior vena cava.

pulmonary veins.

68. The second heart sound (S2) represents:

A) opening of the pulmonic valve.

B) closure of the atrioventricular valves.

C) opening of the aortic valve.

D) closure of the semilunar valves

closure of the semilunar valves.

69. The myocardium is the only muscle that can generate its own electrical impulses. This process is called:

A) automaticity.

B) excitability.

C) conductivity.

D) dromotropy.

automaticity

70. Dysfunction of the mitral valve may cause backflow of blood into the:

A) right ventricle.

B) right atrium.

C) left atrium.

D) left ventricle.

left atrium.

71. Excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system will result in:

A) hypertension.

B) bradycardia.

C) hyperactivity.

D) diaphoresis.

bradycardia

72. Afterload is defined as the:

A) volume of blood returned to the left and right atrium.

B) amount of blood pumped from the heart per contraction.

C) degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps.

D) volume of blood pumped ejected from the heart per minute.

degree of pressure against which the left ventricle pumps.

73. Ventricular muscle contraction and the pumping of blood throughout the body occur during:

A) systole.

B) diastole.

C) asystole.

D) the cardiac cycle.

systole

74. Cardiac output is equal to:

A) systole minus diastole.

B) blood pressure multiplied by heart rate.

C) heart rate minus systolic blood pressure.

D) stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

75. Increased myocardial contractility secondary to stretching of the myocardial walls is called the:

A) Ernest-Henry effect.

B) Frank-Starling effect.

C) Beck-Cushing's reflex.

D) Frank-Beck mechanism.

Frank-Starling effect.

Which of the following lists, in the correct order, the return of blood from the systemic circulation to the heart?

A) Capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava

B) Venules, capillaries, veins, vena cava

C) Capillaries, arterioles, arteries, aorta

D) Arterioles, capillaries, arteries, aorta

A) Capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava

77. The pulmonary circulation is responsible for:

A) sending deoxygenated blood to the atria.

B) perfusing the vital organs of the body.

C) ensuring that blood gets reoxygenated.

D) filtering the blood of toxic chemicals.

ensuring that blood gets reoxygenated.

Which of the following vessels or structures is NOT part of the pulmonary circulation?

A) Pulmonary artery

B) Descending aorta

C) Alveolar capillary

D) Pulmonic valve

B) Descending aorta

79. The first artery to branch from the aortic arch is the:

A) brachiocephalic artery.

B) internal carotid artery.

C) external carotid artery.

D) common iliac artery.

brachiocephalic artery.

80. A slight dilation at the carotid bifurcation, called the ________________, contains structures that are important in regulating blood pressure.

A) foramen ovale

B) circle of Willis

C) fossa ovalis

D) carotid sinus

carotid sinus

81. The subclavian artery gives rise to the:

A) popliteal arteries.

B) femoral arteries.

C) vertebral arteries.

D) carotid arteries.

vertebral arteries.

82. The two major veins that drain the head and neck of blood are the:

A) vertebral veins.

B) jugular veins.

C) cerebral veins.

D) cephalic veins.

jugular veins.

83. The longest portion of the aorta, which subdivides into the thoracic and abdominal aorta, is the:

A) ascending aorta

B) innominate artery.

C) aortic arch.

D) descending aorta.

descending aorta.

84. What physiologic response occurs when a person loses blood?

A) Vessels constrict and myocardial contractility increases.

B) The heart rate increases and cardiac afterload decreases.

C) The sympathetic nervous system decreases SA node discharge.

D) Blood vessels dilate in order to increase arterial blood pressure.

Vessels constrict and myocardial contractility increases.

85. Ordinarily, approximately _____% of the cardiac output passes through the liver each minute.

A) 25

B) 40

C) 55

D) 65

25

86. The main pacemaker for breathing that is responsible for initiating respiration is called the:

A) apneustic center.

B) pneumotaxic center.

C) dorsal respiratory group.

D) ventral respiratory group.

dorsal respiratory group.

87. As blood enters the lungs, it enters the alveoli by passing across the:

A) pulmonary arteriole.

B) pulmonary capillary.

C) pulmonary venule.

D) pulmonary artery.

pulmonary capillary.

88. Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:

A) remains in the lungs following maximum exhalation.

B) is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.

C) is moved in and out of the lungs with maximal expiration.

D) is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation.

is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.

89. Decreases in the PaCO2 result in _____________ pH levels in the respiratory center and a(n) _____________ in ventilation.

A) decreased, decrease

B) increased, increase

C) decreased, increase

D) increased, decrease

increased, decrease

90. The respiratory center of the brain is located in the:

A) medulla.

B) cerebrum.

C) cerebellum.

D) hypothalamus.

medulla

91. The hypoxic drive, a backup system to control breathing, is stimulated when:

A) arterial PaO2 levels decrease.

B) arterial PaCO2 levels increase.

C) arterial PaO2 levels increase.

D) arterial PaCO2 levels decrease.

arterial PaO2 levels decrease.

92. Normal inhalation is the result of:

A) diaphragmatic relaxation.

B) air passively entering the lungs.

C) negative pressure in the thoracic cavity.

D) positive pressure in the thoracic cavity.

negative pressure in the thoracic cavity.

93. Detoxification of toxic substances, production of bile, and production of certain clotting factors are all functions of the:A) pancreas.

B) liver.

C) kidney.

D) gallbladder.

liver

95. A newborn's total body water content is approximately:

A) 40% of total body weight.

B) 50% of total body weight.

C) 60% of total body weight.

D) 80% of total body weight.

80% of total body weight.

96. Extracellular fluid accounts for what percentage of all body fluid?

A) 15%

B) 20%

C) 25%

D) 30%

25

97. A(n) ___________ is a substance that can absorb or donate hydrogen.

A) acid

B) buffer

C) base

D) ion

buffer

Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to see in a patient with a pH of 7.50?

A) Bicarbonate retention

B) Increased respirations

C) Decreased respirations

D) Hydrogen ion excretion

C) Decreased respirations

100. The process in which glucose is broken down to yield lactic or pyruvic acid is called:

A) crenation.

B) gluconeogenesis.

C) glycogenolysis.

D) glycolysis.

glycolysis

101. The study of the body functions in a diseased state is called:

A) anatomy.

B) physiology.

C) pathogenesis.

D) pathophysiology.

pathophysiology

102. Relative to the wrist, the elbow is:

A) anterior.

B) posterior.

C) proximal.

D) distal.

proximal

Which of the following are typically found in the muscle cells, and provide cell movement and contraction via interaction with actin and myosin?

A) Mitochondria

B) Microfilaments

C) Peroxisomes

D) Lysosomes

B) Microfilaments

104. Antibodies made by the liver that make up about 36% of the plasma proteins are called

A) albumins.

B) neutrophils.

C) lysosomes.

D) globulins.

globulins