Pharmacy Question

False

Otic products may be used ophthalmic.

D

Medicare part \_____ covers prescription drugs

Pyrogen

Remnants of bacteria that may cause a fever.

Buffer room USP

Room where the primary engineering controls are sterile as aseptic compounding takes place there.

0.12 g

Betamethsone 0.1% cream is dispensed in a 4 oz tube (120g). How much betamethasone is in the tube?

2.4 g

A prescription asks for 60 g of lidocaine 4% (w/w) ointment. How much lidocaine powder be weighed for this product?

Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee

The \____________ develops the formulary for an institutional pharmacy.

True

Prior authorization requires the physician to seek approval from the insurance company prescribe a specific medication.

Vicodin

According to the CSA, which drug listed below is a C-II substance?

DEA form 106 is used to report which of the following

A. Order C-II medications

B. Document destruction of C-II medications

C. Document theft or loss of C-II medications

C. Document theft or loss of C-II medications

D. None of the above

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

What are the 4 stages of pharmacokinetics?

Only utilizing formulary drugs.

A PBM sets quantity limits to optimize economic performance, this is defined as:

Levofloxacin

Which antibiotic has to be dispensed with a medication guide because of the risk of tendon rupture?

Trazodone

Which drug is NOT an SSRI?

Create the label and affix it to the filled container.

Which of the following steps in processing a prescription in a community pharmacy is the pharmacy technician allowed to do?

Beta-Blockers

Class II antiarrhythmic drugs are:

Migraine HA

Serotonin (5--HT) receptor agonists (triptans) are used to treat:

Gabapentin

Which drug is an anticonvulsant?

Eliminates needlessly filling the prescription and transmitting to an expired insurance company.

Verification of insurance information when a patient drops off a prescription:

Eszopiclone

Which drug is indicated for insomnia?

Ticlid

Which drug is an antiplatelet drug?

Biaxin

Which drug below is NOT a cephalosporin?

Altace

Which drug listed below is an ACE inhibitor?

Pain management

Many drugs have more than one use. Neurontin was originally approved as an anticonvulsant and is not commonly prescribed for:

Schedule IV drugs

All benzodiazepines are:

7.5 mL

A patient has an order for 15 mg of citalopram daily. The patient has requested the liquid dosage formulation, which is available in a 10-mg/5-mL concentration. What volume will the patient take per dose?

Insulin

Which medication must a Type I diabetes mellitus patient be prescribed?

25 gtt/min

A patient is to receive D5W using a 60 gtt/mL set at a rate of 25 mL/hr. What is the rate in gtt/min?

An acute care hospital

A medication order is normally processed in:

High Cholesterol

A patient taking 40 mg of Crestor daily is most likely treating:

Terminate employees responsible for medication errors.

Which is NOT part of a continuous quality improvement process?

Lanoprost

A prostaglandin used to treat glaucoma is:

Insulin

Which of the following medications is considered a high-alert drug?

Forgeries

An e-prescription decreases the potential for:

Avapro

Which drug listed below is the same therapeutic classification as telmisartan?

Pravastatin

Which drug would include a warning about grapefruit juice?

24 hours

How much medication will be dispensed during a typical cart fill in an institutional pharmacy?

Prescription serial number

What information is required on a prescription label?

NDC number

A barcode on pharmaceutical products is encrypted with:

"olol"

The common ending for beta-blockers is:

A topical fungal infection

A patient using terbinafine is most likely treating:

Isolate all the recalled lot numbers.

The pharmacy received a notice for a Class II recall for fentanyl patches. What is the first step the pharmacy technician should take?

Grams per 100mL of final solution

The term weight in volume (w/v) refers to the number of:

Introduction of pathogens

Aseptic technique is the process of manipulating sterile products to prevent:

Cymbalta

What is the brand name for duloxetine?

Compounding of hazardous drugs

USP

Penicillins

Augmentin belongs to which antibiotic family?

Antithrombitic

A category of drug on the ISMP high-alert medication list is:

57.3 kg

Convert 126 lbs. to kg.

If a patient forgets to take his or her scheduled medication on a regular basis, it would be classified as what type of medication error? A. Prescribing error B. Monitoring Error C. Compliance error D. Omission error

Compliance error (patient)

Which of the following drugs is classified as a schedule I narcotic? A. Heroin B. Cocaine C. Numorphan D. Percodan

Heroin

If a medication error reporting and prevention category? A. Category A B. Category S C. Category F D. Category T

Category T

If an individual is suffering from asthma, which drug will he or she most likely take? A. Lansoprazole B. Isaniazid C. Salmeterol D. Memantine

Salmeterol

Which of the following indications would be treated with nortriptyline? A. Cough B. Herpes C. Depression D. Nasal Congestion

Depression

Which of the following acts required health care providers to keep patient information confidential? A. Drug Lisiting Act of 1972 B. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 C. Federal Privacy Act of 1974 D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.

Clozapine is only available through a monitoring and distribution system due to its risk of which of the following? A. Hyperglycemia B. Tendonitis C. Dry Cough D. Hematologic Effects

Hematologic Effects

A technician presented with a prescription that appears to be forged should immediately call the police.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding potential forged prescriptions in an outpatient pharmacy?

Check the label against the original order to determine if an error was made.

When a filling label seems to indicate an error, which of the following would be an appropriate initial action for the technician?

Naloxone

Which of the following medications is often required urgently in a hospital setting?

Hair color and eye color

A thorough review of a well kept patient profile in an outpatient pharmacy will generally allow the technician to identify all of the following except:

When you are dispensing two bottles of a medication, you only need to label one bottle.

Which of the following statements about prescription labeling is NOT TRUE?

Patient's name

Which of the following pieces of information are required on both an outpatient prescription and an inpatient medication order?

Insurance coverage

Common screening options during a pharmacy or nursing-operated computerized order entry process in a hospital include all of the following EXCEPT:

Aminoglycoside dosing and monitoring

Many institutions have developed protocols in which the pharmacist is required to dose and monitor certain medications. Examples of pharmacist protocols include:

Take 1 tablet by mouth every 4 hours as needed for pain for 3 days.

Which of the following best incorporates all recommended components of label directions for outpatient use?

Both centralized and decentralized automation make dispensing more efficient.

Which of the following is TRUE of hospital pharmacy dispensing automation?

Prescriber's name and DEA number

Which of the following is NOT required on an outpatient prescription label for a controlled substance?

All of the answers are correct.

Hospitals' specific policies regarding prioritization of orders:

All of the answers are correct.

When multiple dosage forms of the drug are available , considerations in selecting a dosage form may include:

None of the answers are correct.

Which of the following statements is true regarding telephoned orders?

Height and weight

Information required in the patient profile for a patient at the outpatient pharmacy includes the following EXCEPT:

If there is missing information, in some cases the pharmacy technician can complete it but needs to be supervised by the pharmacist.

Which of the following choices is FALSE regarding clarity and completeness of an order?

The order is urgent.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation "STAT" on an inpatient-setting prescription order?

All of the answers are correct.

In an institutional setting, identifying the correct patient for order entry may include:

All of the answers are correct.

A medication order must be prioritized on the basis of a number of factors, including:

All of the answers are correct.

These are state-by-state variations regarding:

If WAC is used as the basis for reimbursement, it is usually expressed as the WAC minus a small percentage (e.g., 2 or 3%).

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the WAC?

Dispense 60 tablets as a 30-day supply, and document the change in quantity on the face of the prescription.

Mr. Johnson comes into your pharmacy with a prescription for furosemide 20-mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab bid, Qty: \#100. When you enter the information into the pharmacy system, you get a message saying "Maximum days' supply \= 30." You should:

Pre-paid through payroll taxes.

Part A coverage is:

Contact the part D plan as a quantity override may be allowed/ required.

A customer comes into your pharmacy with a prescription ID card for a new Medicare part D plan. She has a prescription for Tylenol \#3 tabs \#360, Sig: Take 1-2 tabs q6h prn for chronic pain. When you enter the information in the pharmacy system, you get a message saying "MME limit exceeded." What should you do?

Medically necessary supplies

Medicare part B pays for:

All of the answers are paid by the Part B individuals

Individuals with Part B coverage are responsible for the:

Perform an E1 transaction on the pharmacy system to determine her part D eligibility information.

A new patient who is a Medicare beneficiary comes into your pharmacy with a prescription. She does not have her Medicare card with her. What should you do?

Charge different copays for different tier drugs with the highest copay for generic medications.

PBMs and their sponsors do the following EXCEPT:

Rent and utilities

Overhead costs often include various expenses such as:

Personnel costs (i.e., salaries for pharmacists and technicians)

Equipment (e.g., computers, fax, printers)

Supplies (e.g., labels, vials)

Progressive copays for subsequent fills

To optimize clinical and economic performance, a PBM uses the following strategies EXCEPT:

Third-party reimbursement relies exclusively on the AWP to determine the cost of the medication.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the AWP?

She may be entitled to a 30-day supply of medication while her physician completes the paperwork for a prior authorization.

Mrs. Patel comes into your pharmacy with a new prescription for Aricept and a prescription ID card for a Medicare part D plan. You enter the information into the pharmacy system and get a message that states "prior authorization required." You tell Mrs. Patel that:

Must pay all costs for prescriptions.

During the coverage gap, the beneficiary:

Medicare

\_____________ is the largest public payer of prescription drug benefits.

The practice setting in which the drug is dispensed.

The exact methodology that is used to bill and reimburse for drugs varies based on several factors, including the following:

The type of drug that is dispensed (e.g., single-source brand products vs. multisource generic products).

The third-party who is paying for the drugs.