Manor Drills - Module 4

Drugs are better absorbed in what form

a. Nonpolar, Lipophobic Form

b. Polar, Lipophilic Form

c. Nonpolar, Hydrophobic Form

d. Two Of The Above

e. None Of The Above

C

According to Fick's Law of Diffusion, which of the following is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion?

a. Concentration Gradient

b. Surface Area Of The Membrane

c. Thickness Of Membrane

d. Diffusion Coefficient

C

Which of the following describes carrier-mediated transport processes?

a. Nonspecific/Nonselective

b. Not Subject To Antagonism

c. Displays Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

d. Movement Is Always Against The Concentration Gradient

C

The most variable parameter in bioavailability that measures the rate and extent of drug entry into the systemic circulation

a.Cmax

b.Tmax

c.Auc

d.Absolute Bioavailability

A

Ceiling dose is:

a.

The Maximum Dose That Will Produce The Maximum Achievable Response

b.

The Minimum Dose That Will Produce The Maximum Achievable Response

c.

The Dose That Produces 50% Of The Maximum Achievable Response

d.

The Dose That Produces Beneficial Effect In 50% Of The Population

B

Acidic Drugs Are Usually Bound To Which Blood Protein?

a.

Alpha-1 Acid Glycoprotein

b.

Globulin

c.

Albumin

d.

Orosomucoid

C

It is the hypothetical or apparent volume of body fluid needed to dissolve a given a given amount of drug to a concentration equal to that in the plasma.

a.

Regional Blood Flow

b.

Volume Of Distribution

c.

Clearance

d.

Total Body Fluid

B

Diclofenac sodium and Diclofenac potassium are considered:

a.

Pharmaceutical Equivalents

b.

Pharmaceutical Alternatives

c.

Therapeutic Equivalents

d.

Therapeutic Alternatives

B

In the presence of a full agonist, a partial agonist becomes a/an:

a.

Full Agonist

b.

Inverse Agonist

c.

Partial Agonist

d.

Antagonist

D

Which of the following increases the rate of gastric emptying?

I. Mild exercise

II. Large food intake

III. Lying on the right side

IV. Anti-dopaminergics

a.

II only

b.

I and II

c.

II and IV

d.

I, III, IV

e.

I, II, IV

D

Certain groups of people require an increased dose of procainamide because of their fast acetylating mechanism. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a.

Eskimos

b.

Orientals

c.

Filipinos

d.

Egyptians

D

Methadone undergoes what kind of drug metabolism?

a.

Nitro Reduction

b.

Carbonyl Reduction

c.

Hydrolysis

d.

Hydroxylation

B

As kidney disease progresses, the serum creatinine _________ and the creatinine clearance __________.

a.

Increases; Increases

b.

Increases; Decreases

c.

Decreases; Increases

d.

Decreases; Decreases

B

Alteration of pH can alter renal elimination of certain toxins. Which of the following may be safely eliminated by alkalinization of urine?

I. Amphetamines

II. Salicylates

III. Barbiturates

a.

I Only

b.

II Only

c.

I, III

d.

II, III

e.

I, II, III

D

The following drugs are under zero order kinetics, except:

a.

Phenytoin

b.

Warfarin

c.

Aspirin

d.

Heparin

e.

None Of The Above

E

A theory which states the effectiveness does not depend on the actual occupation of receptor by the drug, but upon obtaining the proper stimulus.

a.

Hypothesis Of Paton

b.

Hypothesis Of Ariens & Stephenson

c.

Hypothesis Of Clark

d.

Lock And Key Theory

A

Frequency of occurrence of adverse reactions upon exposure to the poison

a.

Hazard

b.

Toxicity

c.

Risk

d.

Risk Assessment

C

The primary mechanism of neurotransmitter release is accomplished by what process?

a.

Diffusion

b.

Carrier-Mediated

c.

Active Transport

d.

Exocytosis

D

Which receptor is responsible for piloerection?

a.

Alpha-1

b.

Beta-1

c.

Beta-3d.

d.

Nm

A

Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 agonist used as a nasal decongestant. Which of the following could be an adverse effect of this drug?

a.

Worsening Of Bph Symptoms

b.

Hypotension

c.

Muscle Weakness Due To Hypokalemia

d.

Bradycardia

A

Patient ABC has asthma and is taking a beta blocker for his hypertension. Which of the following beta blockers does not increase the risk of asthma exacerbation?

a.

Atenolol

b.

Sotalol

c.

Propranolol

d.

Nadolol

A

Abrupt discontinuation of beta blockers can lead to rebound hypertension or tachycardia. This is due to:

a.

Receptor Upregulation

b.

An Increase In Excretion Of Active Drug

c.

Receptor Downregulation

d.

Inactivation Of Counterregulatory Physiologic Response

A

Amphetamines are indirect-acting sympathomimetics. What mechanism do they target?

a.

Release From The Vesicles

b.

Degradation By Comt

c.

Reuptake Into The Presynaptic Terminal

d.

Degradation By Mao

A

Fenoldopam is used for the acute treatment of hypertension. It is a/an:

a.

Alpha-1 Antagonist

b.

Dopamine-1 Agonist

c.

Dopamine-2 Agonist

d.

Dopamine-2 Antagonist

B

Catecholamine depleter that inhibits storage of catecholamines into the VMAT (Vesicular Monoamine Transporter)

a.

Ephedrine

b.

Vesamicol

c.

Reserpine

d.

Guanadrel

C

Pheochromocytoma:

a.

Neuroendocrine Tumor Releasing High Amounts Of Catecholamines

b.

Gastrin-Secreting Tumor Of The Islet Cells In The Pancreas Causing Overproduction Of Gastric Acid

c.

Rare Tumor Of The Alpha Cells Of The Pancreas That Results In The Overproduction Of Glucagon

d.

None Of The Above

A

Telenzepine is used for the treatment of peptic ulcers. What receptor does it target?

a.

M1

b.

M2

c.

M3

d.

Nme.

e.

Nn

A

Which of the following is/are not symptoms of Sarin poisoning?

a.

Increased Gastric Emptying Time

b.

Widening Of Bronchiole Diameter

c.

Slowing Of Heart Rate

d.

Two Of The Above

e.

All Of The Above

D

True about succinylcholine, except:

I. Competitive

II. Depolarizing and irreversible

III. Used to treat malignant hyperthermia

IV. Also known as suxamethonium

a.

I and II

b.

I and III

c.

II and IV

d.

II and III

B

Malignant hyperthermia is an inheritable disorder that occurs upon use of general anesthetics. What test is usually used for establishing the diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia?

a.

Caffeine-Halothane Contracture Test

b.

Snellen Test

c.

Romberg's test

d.

Weber's test

A

Reversible MAO-A inhibitor

a.

Selegiline

b.

Phenelzine

c.

Isocarboxazid

d.

Moclobemide

D

What is the active metabolite of hydroxyzine which is also available as an H1 antagonist without significant sedating effect?

a.

Loratadine

b.

Fexofenadine

c.

Cetirizine

d.

Terfenadine

C

Which vitamin will have decreased absorption from food sources when a patient is taking an H2 blocker?

a.

Vitamin B9

b.

Vitamin A

c.

Vitamin B12

d.

Vitamin K

C

A given drug is known to target the 5HT-1D receptor. What is most likely the clinical indication of this drug?

a.

Glaucoma

b.

Migraine

c.

Hypertension

d.

Anxiety

e.

Chemotherapy-Induced N&V

B

Retroperitoneal fibrosis is an observed complication seen with drugs that belong to what class of agents?

a.

Antivirals

b.

Tropane Alkaloids

c.

Ergot Alkaloids

d.

Ethanolamine Antihistamines

e.

Dopamine Agonists

C

Misoprostol has cytoprotectant effects and is used in the management of NSAID-induced gastritis. What PG analogue is misoprostol?

a.

PGE1

b.

PGE2

c.

PGI2

d.

PGF2

A

What type of calcium channels are antagonized by the so-called Calcium Channel Blockers?

a.

T-Type

b.

N-Type

c.

P-Type

d.

L-Type

D

Which dosing of an organic nitrate is least likely to induce tolerance?

a.

ISMN sustained release tablet per orem once daily

b.

As necessary dose of ISDN 5mg sublingually

c.

Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for 24 hours daily

d.

ISDN regular tablet every 8 hours per orem

B

Mechanism of action of Levosimendan

a.

Na/K Atpase Pump Inhibitor

b.

Pde Inhibitor

c.

Calcium Sensitizer

d.

Adrenergic Agonist

C

Which of the following drugs classified as diuretics may be useful in epileptic women who have seizure exacerbations at the time of menses?

a.

Hctz

b.

Metolazone

c.

Acetazolamide

d.

Chlorthalidone

C

Acute ACEi's

I. Enalaprilat

II. Captopril

III. Fosinopril

a.

I only

b.

I and II

c.

I and III

d.

I, II, III

B

Which of the following side effect/s is are common to the three drugs: Hydralazine, Diazoxide, Minoxidil?

a.

Hypertrichosis

b.

Reflex Tachycardia

c.

Glucose Intolerance

d.

Two Of The Above

B

A prodrug neprilysin inhibitor used in combination with valsartan to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with chronic heart failure

a.

Sacubitril

b.

Nesiritide

c.

Trimetazidine

d.

Ivabradine

A

Which of the following is a sodium channel blocker that can prolong the duration of action potential and dissociates from the channel with intermediate kinetics?

a.

Phenytoin

b.

Encainide

c.

Disopyramide

d.

Amiodarone

C

Which of the following should be monitored clinically or with laboratory examinations when a patient is on Amiodarone?

I. Thyroid function

II. Liver enzymes

III. Pulmonary function

a.

I only

b.

I and II

c.

II and III

d.

I, II, III

D

Which of the following hormones is not produced by the pituitary gland?

a.

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

b.

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

c.

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone

d.

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone

B

Which of the following zone-hormone pairs is correct?

a.

Zona Fasciculata - Glucocorticoids

b.

Zona Glumerulosa - Gonadal Hormones

c.

Zona Reticularis - Mineralocorticoids

d.

Two Of The Above

A

Most commonly used glucocorticoid for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting

a.

Dexamethasone

b.

Prednisone

c.

Betamethasone

d.

Hydrocortisone

A

The following statements are true about thioamides, EXCEPT:

a.

Methimazole is teratogenic and causes aplasia cutis, while PTU is safe for use in pregnancy.

b.

Thioamides are inhibitors of thyroid peroxidase.

c.

5mg is the equivalent methimazole dose of 50mg PTU.

d.

PTU has an additional mechanism which is inhibition of proteolysis.

D

Secreted by pancreatic beta cells to facilitate glucose and amino acid transport for normal cellular metabolic processes:

a.

Glucagon

b.

Somatomedin

c.

Insulin

d.

Vasopressin

C

Insulin is stabilized by zinc and stored as a:

a.

Monomer

b.

Dimer

c.

Pentamer

d.

Hexamer

D

Humalog and Apidra are:

a.

Long-Acting Insulins

b.

Intermediate-Acting Insulins

c.

Rapid-Acting Insulins

d.

Short-Acting Insulins

C

Most cardiotoxic sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemic agent:

a.

Chlorpropamide

b.

Tolbutamide

c.

Acetohexamide

d.

Tolazamide

B

Recombinant human insulin-like growth factor-1 used for the treatment of severe IGF-1 deficiency not responsive to GH

a.

Pegvisomant

b.

Octreotide

c.

Mecasermin

d.

Somatropin

C

A prevalent side effect of norethindrone

a.

Diarrhea

b.

Breakthrough Bleeding

c.

Blood Dyscrasias

d.

Abortion

B

Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

a.

Glycine

b.

Glutamate

c.

GABA

d.

5HT

C

The following inhibits D4 receptors in the brain, EXCEPT

I. Chlorpromazine

II. Clozapine

III. Butyrophenones

IV. Aripiprazole

a.

I only

b.

I and III

c.

II and IV

d.

I, III, IV

B

Atypical antipsychotic that is never given as 1st line because of its adverse effects: seizures, agranulocytosis, and myocarditis

a.

Olanzapine

b.

Risperidone

c.

Aripiprazole

d.

Clozapine

D

Which of the following drugs has been associated with extrapyramidal symptoms?

a.

Metoclopramide

b.

Amantadine

c.

Bromocriptine

d.

Selegiline

A

Which of the following is/are advantage/s of SSRIs compared to other drugs for depression?

I. Lesser lethality with overdose

II. Generally, no dose titration is necessary

III. Minimal cholinergic effects

a.

I Only

b.

II Only

c.

I, III

d.

II, III

e.

I, II, III

E

Nefazodone, a second generation antidepressant, has been withdrawn due to what adverse effect?

a.

Hepatotoxicity

b.

Nephrotoxicity

c.

Cardiotoxicity

d.

Aplastic Anemia

A

Bupropion

a.

Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitor

b.

Norepinephrine-Dopamine Reuptake Inhibitor

c.

Noradrenergic Specific Serotonergic Antidepressant

d.

Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor

B

Which drug is used in combination with levodopa to prevent its peripheral conversion to dopamine?

a.

Carbidopa

b.

Entacapone

c.

Metoclopramide

d.

Selegeline

A

Diazepam, a long acting benzodiazepine, acts on what type of receptor?

a.

Nuclear Receptor

b.

Ligand-Gated Ion Channel

c.

Voltage-Gated Ion Channel

d.

G-Protein Coupled Receptor

B

Antidote for benzodiazepines

a.

Calcium Gluconate

b.

Acetylcysteine

c.

Flumazenil

d.

Deferoxamine

C

Intermediate-acting barbirturate

a.

Hexobarbital

b.

Thiopental

c.

Phenobarbital

d.

Amobarbital

D

Opioids may cause bradycardia and biliary tract contraction. Which of the following is unlikely to induce these effects?

a.

Methadone

b.

Levorphanol

c.

Meperidine

d.

Loperamide

C

Which of the following are ester-type local anesthetics?

I. Procaine

II. Lidocaine

III. Bupivacaine

IV. Tetracaine

a.

I And II

b.

I And III

c.

I And IV

d.

II And III

C

Causes Neurolept Anesthesia

a.

N2O + Droperidol

b.

Droperidol + Fentanyl

c.

N2O + Fentanyl

d.

Droperidol + Fentanyl + N2O

D

An ideal inhalational anesthetic must induce adequate relaxation of skeletal muscles. What is the mechanism of inhalational anesthetics?

a.

Hyperpolarization Via Activation Of Potassium Currents

b.

Hyperpolarization Via Inactivation Of Sodium Currents

c.

Depolarization Via Activation Of Sodium Currents

d.

Repolarization Via Activation Of Chloride Currents

A

Malignant hyperthermia is an adverse effect that is reported with the use of inhalational anesthetics. What is the DOC for malignant hyperthermia?

a.

Bromocriptine

b.

Dantrolene

c.

Opioids

d.

Acetaminophen

B

This antiplatelet reversibly inhibits adenosine diphosphate, thereby preventing further development of clots

a.

Ticlopidine

b.

Clopidogrel

c.

Prasugrel

d.

Ticagrelor

D

Which of the following statements about heparin is true?

a.

Prothrombin Time Is Used For Monitoring

b.

It Is Classified Under Pregnancy Category D

c.

It Acts On Intrinsic Coagulation Pathway

d.

It Inhibits The Vitamin K Epoxidase Reductase-Complex

C

Which of the following patients is most likely to be prescribed with filgrastim?

a.

Patients With Chemotherapy-Induced Neutropenia

b.

Ckd Patient With Anemia

c.

Hypertensive Patient With Type I Dm

d.

Patients with Alzhiemer's disease

A

Complete the analogy.

Chief cells : Pepsin :: Parietal cells : ____________

a.

Mucous

b.

Cholecystokinin

c.

Hcl

d.

Serous Secretion

C

Therapy with HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is associated with rhabdomyolysis and myositis. These complications which can lead to acute tubular necrosis and renal failure have been reported to be augmented with co-administration of which drugs?

a.

Fibric Acid Derivatives

b.

Bile Acid-Binding Resins/Sequestrants

c.

Ace Inhibitors

d.

Amphetamines

A

Which of the following drugs should be not be given to a patient allergic to sulfonamides?

a.

Metformin

b.

Ethacrynic Acid

c.

Torsemide

d.

Amiloride

C

Which of the following is/are true about proton pump inhibitors?

I. irreversibly blocks H/K ATPase '

II. can be useful for Zollinger-Elisson syndrome

III. less effective than H2 blockers for GERD

IV. Chronic use may cause hypergastrinemia

a.

I, II, III

b.

I, II, IV

c.

II, III, IV

d.

I, III, IV

B

Lubiprostone

a.

Opioid receptor antagonist

b.

Osmotic laxative

c.

Chloride channel activator in the intestines

d.

Stool-forming

C

Oral gold preparation used for rheumatoid arthritis

a.

Aurothiomalate

b.

Aurothioglucose

c.

Auranofin

d.

Two Of The Above

C

Which of the following NSAIDs is associated with higher risk of PUD because its inhibition at the COX1 receptor is 3-folds more than at the COX2 receptor?

a.

Piroxicam

b.

Ibuprofen

c.

Sulindac

d.

Naproxen

A

Which of the following pyrazolone derivatives is a uricosuric?

a.

Phenylbutazone

b.

Dipyrone

c.

Oxyphenbutazone

d.

Sulfinpyrazone

D

Azathioprine and allopurinol should not be taken together because:

a.

Azathioprine interferes with the metabolism of allopurinol

b.

Allopurinol interferes with the metabolism of azathioprine

c.

They have the same mechanism of action

d.

They produce the same effect and can lead to severe hypotension and death

B

This immunosuppressant reversibly inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase important for purine biosynthesis.

a.

Ciclosporin

b.

Leflunomide

c.

Mycophenolate

d.

Tacrolimus

C

All of the following are alkylating agents, except:

a.

Irinotecan

b.

Cyclophosphamide

c.

Busulfan

d.

Dacarbazine

A

Cardiotoxicity caused by doxorubicin could be prevented by co-administration of what rescue drug?

a.

MESNA

b.

Leucovorin

c.

Acrolein

d.

Dexrazoxane

D

Disulfiram is used in patients with chronic alcoholism. What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?

a.

Alcohol Dehydrogenase

b.

Aldehyde Dehydrogenase

c.

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

d.

Two Of The Above

B

Area of toxicology that focuses on direct toxicity testing

a.

Mechanistic Toxicology

b.

Descriptive Toxicology

c.

Regulatory Toxicology

d.

Clinical Toxicology

B

Which is not part of the universal antidote?

a.

Activated Charcoal

b.

Magnesium Hydroxide

c.

Tannic Acid

d.

None Of The Above

B

Characteristic of phosphorus intoxication

a.

Odor Of Bitter Almonds

b.

Mees Lines

c.

Luminous Vomit

d.

Loss Of Voice

C

VENERUPIN

a.Oysters

b.Sardines

c.Poison Toad

d.Stale Peanuts

e.Dinoflagellates

B

AFLATOXIN

a.Oysters

b.Sardines

c.Poison Toad

d.Stale Peanuts

e.Dinoflagellates

D

CLUPEOTOXIN

a.Oysters

b.Sardines

c.Poison Toad

d.Stale Peanuts

e.Dinoflagellates

A

TETRODOTOXIN

a.Oysters

b.Sardines

c.Poison Toad

d.

Stale Peanuts

e.Dinoflagellates

C

SAXITOXIN

a.Oysters

b.Sardines

c.Poison Toad

d.Stale Peanuts

e.Dinoflagellates

E