BMET CDC Vol 7

1. (401) What part of the ear separates the external ear from the middle ear?

a. Tympanic membrane.

b. Malleus.

c. Stirrup.

d. Incus.

a. Tympanic membrane.

2. (401) Air pressure in the middle ear is equalized by the

a. Eustachian tube.

b. organ of Corti.

c. labyrinth.

d. ossicles.

a. Eustachian tube.

3. (401) What is the approximate high frequency limit of human hearing?

a. 1 kilohertz (kHz).

b. 2 kHz.

c. 10 kHz.

d. 20 kHz.

d. 20 kHz.

4. (402) What is the outer layer of the eye?

a. Sclera.

b. Retina.

c. Cornea.

d. Choroid.

a. Sclera.

5. (402) The color of the eye comes from the

a. iris.

b. retina.

c. cornea.

d. ciliary body.

a. iris.

6. (402) Images are converted to nerve impulses and sent to the brain by way of the

a. corneal passageway.

b. pupillary nerve.

c. aqueous humor.

d. optic nerve.

d. optic nerve.

7. (402) How many muscles control the movements of the eye?

a. Four.

b. Six.

c. Eight.

d. Ten.

b. Six.

8. (403) What blood constituent transports oxygen and carbon dioxide through the body?

a. Thrombocytes.

b. Erythrocytes.

c. Leukocytes.

d. Platelets.

b. Erythrocytes.

9. (403) What portion of the blood remains after removing all cells from the blood?

a. Fibrin.

b. Plasma.

c. Platelets.

d. Basophils.

b. Plasma.

10. (403) External respiration is the exchange of gases between the bloodstream and the

a. tissue cells.

b. arteries.

c. alveoli.

d. heart.

c. alveoli.

11. (404) According to Snell's Law, when light is reflected, the angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of

a. occurrence.

b. dissipation.

c. absorption.

d. incidence.

d. incidence.

12. (404) What type of reflection occurs when light strikes a smooth, shiny surface?

a. Concurrent.

b. Specular.

c. Brilliant.

d. Diffuse.

b. Specular.

13. (404) The refractive index of a material is determined by the

a. speed at which light travels through it.

b. angle at which light travels through it.

c. amount of light that will pass through it.

d. amount of light that is reflected off of it.

a. speed at which light travels through it.

14. (404) What phenomenon occurs when light waves bend as they pass around an object?

a. Refraction.

b. Diffraction.

c. Interference.

d. Total internal reflection.

b. Diffraction.

15. (404) Which type of lens produces a virtual image rather than an actual image?

a. Dark.

b. Convex.

c. Concave.

d. Diffraction.

c. Concave.

16. (404) The point at which light rays converge after they leave a lens is known as the

a. diffractive point.

b. cross point.

c. focal point.

d. exit point.

c. focal point.

17. (405) The tone, or pitch, of a sound wave is not determined by

a. period.

b. velocity.

c. frequency.

d. wavelength.

b. velocity.

18. (405) Which type of interference occurs when two sound waves are traveling in phase and combine to form a

larger wave?

a. Combined.

b. Developed.

c. Destructive.

d. Constructive.

d. Constructive.

19. (405) The relationship between different decibel levels is

a. logarithmic.

b. volumetric.

c. residual.

d. linear.

a. logarithmic.

20. (406) The pure tone threshold indicates the softest sound at a given frequency audible to a patient at least

a. 20 percent of the time.

b. 50 percent of the time.

c. 75 percent of the time.

d. 100 percent of the time.

b. 50 percent of the time.

21. (406) Which audiometric testing is used to bypass the outer and middle ear?

a. Speech.

b. Free-field.

c. Sound field.

d. Bone conduction.

d. Bone conduction.

22. (406) Which test produces a visual graph indicating how stiff a patient's eardrum is at various pressures?

a. Static acoustic.

b. Tympanogram.

c. Audiogram.

d. Eustachian.

b. Tympanogram.

23. (407) An ocular disease characterized by an increased pressure within the eyeball is called

a. astigmatism.

b. glaucoma.

c. hyperopia.

d. myopia.

b. glaucoma.

24. (408) Which portion of an electrocardiogram waveform represents the relaxation and repolarization of the

ventricles?

a. P-wave.

b. T-wave.

c. R-wave.

d. QRS complex.

b. T-wave.

25. (408) What factors are represented on an electrocardiogram recording?

a. Signal and strength.

b. Signal and voltage.

c. Voltage and time.

d. Signal and time.

c. Voltage and time.

26. (408) How many lead sets are required to make a standard electrocardiogram recording?

a. 3.

b. 6.

c. 8.

d. 12.

a. 3.

27. (408) What are the two frontal plane measurements in an electrocardiogram?

a. Unipolar and transverse.

b. Transverse and sagittal.

c. Bipolar and transverse.

d. Bipolar and unipolar.

d. Bipolar and unipolar.

28. (408) The transverse plane measurements in an electrocardiogram are referred to as

a. chest common leads.

b. unipolar limb leads.

c. bipolar limb leads.

d. V leads.

d. V leads.

29. (409) What is not a standard lung volume?

a. Tidal.

b. Total lung.

c. Expiratory reserve.

d. Inspiratory reserve.

b. Total lung.

30. (409) Some spirometers contain pneumotachs, which are used to measure

a. capacity.

b. volume.

c. flow.

d. time.

c. flow.

31. (409) Which type of lung disease causes a decreased total lung capacity?

a. Restrictive.

b. Obstructive.

c. Emphysema.

d. Chronic bronchitis.

a. Restrictive.

32. (410) What is a standard vital sign?

a. Pulse.

b. Cardiac output.

c. Oxygen saturation.

d. Electrocardiogram.

a. Pulse.

33. (410) What is a measure of the hypnotic effect of anesthetic gases?

a. Bispectral index.

b. Cardiac output.

c. Capnography.

d. Apnea.

a. Bispectral index.

34. (410) What is the maximum pressure reached during each heart pumping cycle?

a. Arterial.

b. Systolic.

c. Diastolic.

d. Pulse pressure.

b. Systolic.

35. (410) What causes the dicrotic notch in an arterial waveform?

a. Heart at rest.

b. Restricted pressure.

c. Aortic valve closure.

d. End of systole period.

c. Aortic valve closure.

36. (410) Which type of automatic blood pressure measuring technique uses the Korotkoff sounds?

a. Oscillometric.

b. Auscultatory.

c. Invasive.

d. Direct.

b. Auscultatory.

37. (410) What is the least common type of hypertension?

a. Hereditary.

b. Secondary.

c. Essential.

d. Genetic.

b. Secondary.

38. (410) What is not a pressure measured using invasive blood pressure measurement techniques?

a. Arterial pressure.

b. Mean systolic pressure.

c. Central venous pressure.

d. Pulmonary artery pressure.

b. Mean systolic pressure.

39. (410) What is the greatest disadvantage of linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) induction transducertipped

catheters used for invasive blood pressure measurement?

a. Physical size.

b. Patient sensitivity.

c. Fragile construction.

d. Use of fluid medium.

c. Fragile construction.

40. (410) Which catheterization method does not require X-rays and uses a balloon-tipped catheter?

a. Millar.

b. Mikro-tip.

c. Dome type.

d. Swan-Ganz.

d. Swan-Ganz.

41. (410) What is the normal blood oxygen saturation level in a healthy adult?

a. 74-78 percent.

b. 82-88 percent.

c. 89-96 percent.

d. 97-99 percent.

d. 97-99 percent.

42. (410) What two wavelengths of light are used in pulse oximetry to determine arterial blood oxygen saturation

and pulse rate?

a. Red and white.

b. Red and infrared.

c. Visible and white.

d. Visible and infrared.

b. Red and infrared.

43. (410) In pulse oximetry, oxygen saturated blood absorbs

a. less red light.

b. more red light.

c. less white light.

d. more white light.

a. less red light.

44. (410) What is the formula for cardiac output?

a. Liters per minute (L/min) multiplied by the heart rate.

b. Stroke volume (SV) multiplied by the heart rate.

c. SV multiplied by the oxygen saturation (SaO2).

d. L/min multiplied by the SaO2.

b. Stroke volume (SV) multiplied by the heart rate.

45. (410) In what situation would the cardiac output measurement technique not be used?

a. Patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) with a cardiovascular abnormality.

b. Patient with hypertension visiting family practice.

c. Patient in the ICU with hypotension.

d. Patient in postoperative care.

b. Patient with hypertension visiting family practice.

46. (410) Which type of cardiac output measurement technique uses a Swan-Ganz catheter?

a. Bolus dye solution.

b. Thermodilution.

c. Bioimpedance.

d. Ultrasound.

b. Thermodilution.

47. (410) Respiration monitors are used on patients who have received conscious sedation because

a. anxiety about the procedure may disturb respiration.

b. the drugs used have a suppressant effect on respiration.

c. pain from the procedure performed may disturb respiration.

d. the body's natural reaction to a medical procedure is to increase respiration.

b. the drugs used have a suppressant effect on respiration.

48. (410) What is used as a flow detector in respiration monitors?

a. Piezoresistive strain gauge.

b. Impedance pneumograph.

c. Amplitude modulator.

d. Thermistor.

d. Thermistor.

49. (411) What is the primary benefit of the modular type of bedside physiological monitor?

a. Low cost.

b. Increased patient safety.

c. Easier to track in any medical logistics system.

d. Flexibility to change which parameters are measured.

d. Flexibility to change which parameters are measured.

50. (411) What patient parameter is always measured with a bedside physiological monitor?

a. Electrocardiogram waveform.

b. Oxygen saturation.

c. Cardiac output.

d. Breathing rate.

a. Electrocardiogram waveform.

51. (411) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) developed the Wireless Medical Telemetry Service (WMTS)

band to help alleviate interference from

a. walkie-talkies and cell phones.

b. local radio stations.

c. vacant television channels.

d. magnetic resonance imaging systems.

a. walkie-talkies and cell phones.

52. (411) Which alarm function of a central patient monitoring system prevents the staff from reacting as if there

were a true emergency?

a. Tachycardia indicator.

b. Lead fault indicator.

c. Bradycardia alarm.

d. Flat line alarm.

b. Lead fault indicator.

53. (411) What are the most common problems encountered when troubleshooting a central patient monitoring

system?

a. Component power failures.

b. Outdated antivirus software.

c. Incorrect bed numbers assigned to zones.

d. Communication issues between components.

d. Communication issues between components.

54. (412) On electrocardiogram graph paper, the large horizontal squares represent

a. 0.1 second of heart activity.

b. 0.2 seconds of heart activity.

c. 5 seconds of heart activity.

d. 10 seconds of heart activity.

b. 0.2 seconds of heart activity.

55. (412) What is the size and shape of the built-in test signal for most electrocardiogram machines?

a. 5-millimeter square wave.

b. 5-millimeter triangle wave.

c. 10-millimeter square wave.

d. 10-millimeter triangle wave.

c. 10-millimeter square wave.

56. (412) If an electrocardiogram (ECG) patient simulator produces a 1-Hertz test signal, how many large horizontal

squares of the ECG graph paper should it cover?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Five.

d. Ten.

c. Five.

57. (412) What are the normal minimum and maximum pressure ranges available on a blood pressure analyzer to

test neonatal blood pressure accuracy?

a. 60/30 to 120/80.

b. 60/30 to 150/100.

c. 120/80 to 200/100.

d. 150/100 to 255/195.

b. 60/30 to 150/100.

58. (412) Which blood pressure analyzer test indicates in millimeters of mercury per second the rate of cuff

deflation?

a. Leak test.

b. Deflate rate.

c. Deflate time.

d. Maximum pressure.

b. Deflate rate.

59. (413) The frequency range transmitted toward the fetal heart by an ultrasound transducer is 2-10

a. Hertz.

b. kilohertz.

c. megahertz.

d. gigahertz.

c. megahertz.

60. (413) Which fetal detection system cannot be used without rupturing the amniotic sac?

a. Tocodynamometer.

b. Phonocardiograph.

c. Spiral electrode.

d. Ultrasound.

c. Spiral electrode.

61. (414) What are the two basic ways a scope is introduced into the body?

a. Natural body orifice and major surgical incision.

b. Natural body orifice and tiny surgical incision.

c. Skin graft and major surgical incision.

d. Skin graft and tiny surgical incision.

b. Natural body orifice and tiny surgical incision.

62. (414) The four basic parts of a flexible scope are the control body, insertion tube, bending section at the distal

tip, and

a. light-guide connector unit.

b. light source.

c. insufflator.

d. monitor.

a. light-guide connector unit.

63. (414) The most fragile part of a rigid endoscope is the

a. objective lens.

b. light post.

c. telescope.

d. eyepiece.

c. telescope.

64. (415) What is not a basic feature found on an automated scope processor?

a. Basin.

b. Alarms.

c. Monitor.

d. Water filter.

c. Monitor.

65. (416) The four stages in automated tissue processing are fixation, dehydration,

a. clearing, and decalcification.

b. clearing, and embedding.

c. staining, and embedding.

d. staining, and clearing.

b. clearing, and embedding.

66. (416) What is the most common form of fixative?

a. Mercurial.

b. Aldehyde.

c. Formalin.

d. Picrates.

c. Formalin.

67. (416) Paraffins are purchased according to level of hardness preferred and

a. fire rating.

b. climate.

c. speed.

d. cost.

b. climate.

68. (417) What is not a factor in developing centrifugal force?

a. Distance from the center of rotation.

b. Speed of rotation.

c. Volume.

d. Density.

c. Volume.

69. (417) What does the centrifuge time include?

a. Acceleration, time, and deceleration.

b. Acceleration and time.

c. Deceleration and time.

d. Time only.

b. Acceleration and time.

70. (417) The wash cycle in an automated cell washer takes approximately

a. 10-15 seconds.

b. 25-30 seconds.

c. 35-40 seconds.

d. 60-85 seconds.

d. 60-85 seconds.

71. (417) What does a non-contact tachometer use to measure the speed of rotation of a centrifuge?

a. Red light.

b. Infrared light.

c. Ultraviolet light.

d. Ultrasonic pulses.

b. Infrared light.

72. (418) Complete blood cell counts are a function of

a. kinetic assay.

b. blood gas analyzers.

c. electrolyte analyzers.

d. electronic particle counters.

d. electronic particle counters.

73. (418) What are two automated methods of counting blood cells?

a. Optical and impedance.

b. Optical and radioactive.

c. Discrete and continuous.

d. Impedance and radioactive.

a. Optical and impedance.

74. (419) What is used to measure the small potential differences accompanying blood potential hydrogen variations?

a. Cell half-life.

b. Chemical half-cells.

c. Electronic resistance.

d. Electronic impedance.

b. Chemical half-cells.

75. (419) Who modified Richard Stow's work on the partial pressure of carbon dioxide electrode?

a. Blaise Pascal.

b. Leland Clark.

c. William Henry.

d. John Severinghaus.

d. John Severinghaus.

76. (420) What are the three methods employed for chemistry analyzing?

a. Electrochemistry, reagents, and standards.

b. Radioisotopes, optical measurement, and staining.

c. Optical measurement, kinetic assays, and radio tagging.

d. Optical measurement, electrochemistry, and kinetic assays.

d. Optical measurement, electrochemistry, and kinetic assays.

77. (420) Which equipment uses the principle of reflectance, instead of transmittance?

a. Photometer.

b. Spectrophotometer.

c. Reflectance photometer.

d. Reflectance spectrophotometer.

c. Reflectance photometer.

78. (420) Ion-selective electrodes are used with which method of chemistry analyzing?

a. Photometry.

b. Kinetic assay.

c. Electrochemistry.

d. Optical measurement.

c. Electrochemistry.

79. (420) What are the two types of automated chemistry analyzers?

a. Discrete and continuous flow.

b. Batch and continuous flow.

c. Individual and discrete.

d. Individual and batch.

a. Discrete and continuous flow.

80. (421) Charged molecules or atoms essential for maintaining water balance, acid-base balance, and overall

balance of cellular function are called

a. nutrients.

b. minerals.

c. electrolytes.

d. potential hydrogen.

c. electrolytes.

81. (421) What material is used in the ion-selective electrodes for measuring chloride in serum?

a. Mercury.

b. Silver chloride.

c. Silver-silver chloride.

d. Ion exchange membrane with antibiotic.

b. Silver chloride.

82. (422) The percentage of DNA code sequences that vary from person to person and make us unique is

a. 0.01 percent.

b. 0.1 percent.

c. 1.0 percent.

d. 10 percent.

b. 0.1 percent.

83. (422) In a deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) double helix, which base pair would be a correct bond?

a. Adenine (A) with thymine (T).

b. Guanine (G) with thymine (T).

c. Cytosine (C) with adenine (A).

d. Thymine (T) with cytosine (C).

a. Adenine (A) with thymine (T).

84. (423) What is the minimum number of lenses that a compound microscope uses to produce a magnified image?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

b. Two.

85. (423) The distance required for a microscope lens to focus light, usually measured in microns, is known as the

a. focal length.

b. field of view.

c. depth of field.

d. focal point/focus.

a. focal length.

86. (423) What is needed to improve the resolving power of a microscope?

a. Shorter depth of field.

b. Higher lens magnification.

c. Longer wavelength of light.

d. Shorter wavelength of light.

d. Shorter wavelength of light.

87. (424) A cardiac stress test is primarily used to diagnose

a. liver disease.

b. kidney disease.

c. stomach disease.

d. coronary artery disease.

d. coronary artery disease.

88. (424) What test is not obtained during an exercise stress test?

a. Baseline electrocardiogram.

b. Blood pressure.

c. Temperature.

d. Pulse.

c. Temperature.

89. (425) Which component of a fume hood is designed to guide the airstreams into the hood with minimum

turbulence?

a. Sash.

b. Airfoil.

c. Baffles.

d. Plenum.

b. Airfoil.

90. (425) The speed of air traveling across the opening of a fume hood is referred to as

a. face velocity

b. airfoil velocity.

c. variable air flow.

d. laminar flow speed.

a. face velocity