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Flashcards for the CP Biology Spring Semester Final Study Guide
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What problems does growth cause for cells?
Cells experience problems with growth, including DNA overload and difficulties obtaining nutrients and expelling wastes.
Describe the process of cell division.
Cell division is the process by which a cell divides into two new daughter cells.
What happens during interphase?
Interphase is the period of the cell cycle between cell divisions, where the cell grows and replicates its DNA.
Describe the processes of the cell cycle.
The cell cycle is a repeating series of growth, DNA replication, and cell division.
Draw and name the parts of a chromosome.
A chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids, a centromere, and telomeres.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
The spindle helps to separate chromosomes during mitosis.
What are the differences between cell division in plant cells and in animal cells?
In plant cells, a cell plate forms; in animal cells, the cell membrane pinches inward to form a cleavage furrow.
During normal mitotic cell division, what happens to the chromosome number of the cell?
During normal mitotic cell division, the chromosome number of the cell remains the same.
Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their what?
Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their growth.
Compare a normal and a cancerous cell growth chart.
Normal cells exhibit controlled growth, while cancerous cells exhibit uncontrolled growth and can form tumors.
Define the different types of stem cells.
Different types of stem cells include totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent stem cells.
Describe the process of fertilization.
Fertilization is the process in sexual reproduction that involves the union of male (sperm) and female (ovum) gametes to produce a diploid zygote.
Draw and Describe the process of crossing over.
Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
Define diploid and haploid number in terms of meiotic division.
Diploid (2n) cells contain two sets of chromosomes, while haploid (n) cells contain one set of chromosomes.
What is the difference between a cell undergoing mitosis and one that is undergoing meiosis?
Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells, while meiosis results in four genetically different haploid cells.
What is the difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis?
Oogenesis is the production of egg cells, while spermatogenesis is the production of sperm cells.
How does nondisjunction affect the formation of the gametes?
Nondisjunction can result in gametes with abnormal numbers of chromosomes.
How does crossing over lead to gene maps?
Crossing over frequency can be used to create gene maps.
How does the distance between genes affect way in which they are inherited?
The distance between genes affects the way in which they are inherited; genes that are closer together are more likely to be inherited together.
Draw and label a DNA molecule.
A DNA molecule is double helix made of nucleotides composed of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (A, T, C, or G).
Draw and label a DNA nucleotide.
A DNA nucleotide consists of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (A, T, C, or G).
What are the nucleotides found in DNA?
The nucleotides found in DNA are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G).
Describe the base pairing rule and show how you can determine the amount of any nucleotide using it.
The base pairing rule states that adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G).
Describe the process used to replicate a DNA molecule.
DNA replication involves unwinding the DNA double helix, and using each strand as a template for synthesizing a new complementary strand.
Give an example of two sides of the DNA molecule showing the base pairing rule.
Example: One side is ATGC, the other side would be TACG.
Compare and Contrast DNA and RNA nucleotides?
DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, while RNA contains ribose sugar; DNA uses thymine, while RNA uses uracil; DNA is double-stranded, while RNA is single-stranded.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are involved in protein synthesis.
Describe the relationship between triplets, codons and amino acids?
Triplets (DNA), codons (mRNA), and amino acids are related because each codon specifies a particular amino acid.
Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon?
An amino acid can be specified by more than one kind of codon because there are 64 possible codons but only 20 amino acids.
What happens during the process of translation?
During translation, mRNA is decoded to produce a specific polypeptide according to the rules specified by the genetic code.
Define intron and exon.
Introns are non-coding regions of RNA, while exons are coding regions of RNA.
Describe the function of the Universal Codon Box
The Universal Codon Box shows the specific amino acid translated per each mRNA codon.
What do our genes contain the instructions for assembling?
Our genes contain the instructions for assembling proteins.
Using the codon chart in your book identify the amino acid sequence that the following DNA sequence would create: TACGCGTAAACGATC.
TACGCGTAAACGATC would create the amino acid sequence: Methionine - Arginine - Lysine- Leucine
Draw and label the types of mutations that can occur in DNA?
Mutations can be substitutions, insertions, or deletions.
Define true-breeding, pure-bred and hybrid
True-breeding organisms are homozygous for a particular trait, resulting in offspring with the same phenotype.
How did Mendel conclude that traits are inherited
Mendel concluded that traits are inherited through genes that are passed from parents to offspring.
What does the principle of dominance state?
The principle of dominance states that some alleles are dominant and others are recessive.
What does the classic Mendelian cross produce? Why?
The classic Mendelian cross produces a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation due to the segregation of alleles during gamete formation.
How could a pea plant that has a recessive allele for green peas show the yellow pea phenotype?
A pea plant with a recessive allele for green peas shows the yellow pea phenotype if it also has at least one dominant allele for yellow peas.
Why did short plants reappear in Mendelās F2 generation?
Short plants reappeared in Mendelās F2 generation because the recessive alleles segregated and recombined during gamete formation.
What would happen if alleles did not separate (segregate) during gamete formation?
If alleles did not separate (segregate) during gamete formation, genetic variation would be reduced and offspring would always inherit the same combination of alleles as their parents.
What do we use the principles of probability in genetics for?
We use the principles of probability in genetics to predict the likelihood of different genotypes and phenotypes in offspring.
Using a classic Mendel cross determine the probability that an F2 plant would be tall.
Using a classic Mendel cross, the probability that an F2 plant would be tall is typically 75%.
Define Homozygous and Heterozygous in terms of alleles.
Homozygous individuals have two identical alleles for a particular trait, while heterozygous individuals have two different alleles for a particular trait.
Develop a Punnett square showing Mendelās cross between true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants.
Mendel's cross between true-breeding tall plants and true-breeding short plants results in an F1 generation that is all tall (heterozygous), and an F2 generation with a 3:1 ratio of tall to short plants.
Define incomplete dominance. What is a roan color pattern?
Incomplete dominance is when one allele is not completely dominant over another, resulting in a blended phenotype. Roan color patterns are an example.
Explain the relationship between genotype and phenotype.
Genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism, while phenotype is the physical expression of that genetic makeup.
What is shown in a karyotype?
A karyotype shows the complete set of chromosomes in a cell, arranged in homologous pairs.
In humans, what chromosomes do males and females have?
In humans, males have XY chromosomes and females have XX chromosomes.
What do we use a pedigree for?
We use a pedigree to trace the inheritance of traits in a family.
What are the possible genotypes/phenotypes of the offspring when using blood types?
The possible genotypes/phenotypes of the offspring when using blood types depend on the blood types of the parents. Blood types include A, B, AB, and O.
Describe sex-linked genes and predict the possible outcomes of various crosses?
Sex-linked genes are genes located on the sex chromosomes. The possible outcomes of various crosses depend on the specific genes involved.
Why is Colorblindness more common in males than in females?
Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because it is an X-linked recessive trait.
Define nondisjunction.
Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate during cell division.
Describe the process of DNA fingerprinting.
DNA fingerprinting is a process used to identify individuals based on their unique DNA sequences.
How do scientists test for genetic disorders?
Scientists test for genetic disorders using techniques such as amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, and genetic screening.
Define selective breeding using an example.
Selective breeding is the process of selecting and breeding individuals with desired traits. An example is breeding dogs for specific characteristics.
What is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for a genetic defect?
Close relatives breeding is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for a genetic defect.
Define hybridization
Hybridization is the crossing of dissimilar individuals to bring together the best traits of both.
What is the ultimate source of genetic variability?
Mutation is the ultimate source of genetic variability.
How does a restriction enzyme produce a DNA fragment?
A restriction enzyme produces a DNA fragment by cutting DNA at specific recognition sites.
Define genetic engineering.
Genetic engineering is the process of altering the genetic material of an organism.
Describe bacterial transformation.
Bacterial transformation is when bacteria take up foreign DNA from their environment.
What does analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to do?
Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to separate DNA fragments by size.
How do researchers test for the presence of recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to the antibiotic penicillin?
Researchers test for recombinant plasmids by testing for antibiotic resistance.
What is an advantage of using transgenic bacteria to produce human proteins?
An advantage of using transgenic bacteria is they can produce large quantities of human proteins quickly and cost-effectively.
Why is Dolly a clone?
Dolly is a clone because she was created from a single somatic cell and is genetically identical to her parent.
How has the overuse of antibiotics led to āSuperbugsā?
The overuse of antibiotics has led to "Superbugs" by selecting for antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
Describe the ecological role of bacteria in the environment?
Bacteria play an ecological role in decomposition, nutrient cycling, and nitrogen fixation.
Where are you most likely to find nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are most likely to be found in the roots of legumes.
How do bacteria cause disease?
Bacteria cause disease by producing toxins or damaging tissues.
How are Bacteria used by humans?
Bacteria are used in food production, bioremediation, and the production of antibiotics.
What are all viruses are made of?
All viruses are made of genetic material (DNA or RNA) and a protein coat (capsid).
How does a virus cause an infection? What diseases do viruses cause?
A virus causes an infection by entering a host cell and using the cell's machinery to replicate itself. Viruses cause diseases such as the flu, measles, and HIV.
What is the main function of the skin?
The main function of the skin is to provide a barrier against pathogens.
How are infectious diseases related to pathogens?
Infectious diseases are related to pathogens because they are caused by pathogens.
Why is it important to be able to distinguish between gram positive and negative bacteria?
Being able to distinguish between gram positive and negative bacteria is important because it helps in selecting the appropriate antibiotic treatment.
How are infectious diseases spread?
Infectious diseases are spread through direct contact, airborne transmission, contaminated food or water, and vectors.
How do antibiotics fight infections?
Antibiotics fight infections by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, or DNA replication.
What are the advantage of a fever while fighting an infectious disease?
A fever is advantageous because it inhibits the growth of pathogens and speeds up the immune response.
What are the body's nonspecific defenses against invading pathogens?
The body's nonspecific defenses include the skin, mucous membranes, inflammatory response, and fever.
Describe the inflammatory response.
The inflammatory response involves redness, swelling, heat, and pain at the site of infection.
What happens when a person receives a vaccine?
When a person receives a vaccine, the body produces antibodies and memory cells against a specific pathogen.
Describe Humoral and Cell-mediated immunity. Make sure to identify the type of lymphocyte that each uses.
Humoral immunity involves B lymphocytes that produce antibodies, while cell-mediated immunity involves T lymphocytes that directly kill infected cells.
What type of lymphocyte help us to prevent developing a disease the second time we are exposed?
Memory cells help us to prevent developing a disease the second time we are exposed.
What triggers an immune response?
An antigen triggers an immune response.
What happens when a person has an allergic reaction?
When a person has an allergic reaction, the immune system overreacts to a harmless substance.
Define Autoimmune disease.
Autoimmune disease is a condition in which the immune system attacks the body's own cells.
How does HIV weaken the immune system? Which specific lymphocyte does it affect?
HIV weakens the immune system by infecting and destroying T helper cells.