Obstetric Ultrasound: Pregnancy, Ectopic, and Fetal Anomalies

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192 Terms

1
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In a normal early pregnancy, how often should hCG levels double?

Every 48 hours

2
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What two conditions are raised as concerns with sub-doubling hCG levels?

Ectopic pregnancy or failing pregnancy

3
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What does a faster than expected rise in hCG suggest?

Multiple gestation or molar pregnancy

4
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By what week should a gestational sac be visible?

4.5-5 weeks

5
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By what week should a yolk sac be visible?

5-5.5 weeks

6
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By what week should cardiac activity be detected?

5.5-6 weeks

7
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Between which two structures does SCH form?

Chorion and uterine wall

8
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What symptom is most associated with SCH?

Vaginal bleeding

9
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How does SCH appear on ultrasound?

Crescent/irregular hypoechoic or anechoic area adjacent to GS

10
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What does a large SCH (>40% GS size) increase the risk of?

Miscarriage

11
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What is the classic symptom triad of ectopic pregnancy?

Vaginal bleeding + pelvic pain + adnexal mass

12
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What is the most common location for ectopic pregnancy?

Ampulla of fallopian tube

13
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What sign indicates a hypervascular ring around an ectopic?

Ring of fire

14
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What must be ruled out when observing the ring of fire?

Corpus luteum cyst

15
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What is a pseudogestational sac?

Fluid in endometrium mimicking GS in ectopic

16
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Why is cornual ectopic pregnancy dangerous?

Risk of massive hemorrhage from uterine vessels

17
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What does heterotopic pregnancy mean?

Simultaneous IUP and ectopic

18
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What is the former name for anembryonic pregnancy?

Blighted ovum

19
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What size of GS without yolk sac is considered abnormal?

> 25 mm

20
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What is abnormal when a yolk sac is present but no embryo in GS > ___ mm?

20 mm

21
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What does the 'R' in the DRIPPC mnemonic for oligohydramnios causes stand for?

Renal abnormalities

22
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What lung condition can severe oligohydramnios lead to?

Pulmonary hypoplasia

23
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Does a complete mole have a fetus present?

No

24
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Does a partial mole have a fetus present?

Yes, abnormal

25
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What is the nickname for GTD US appearance?

Snowstorm

26
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What is the lab hallmark of GTD?

Very high hCG

27
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What ovarian finding is often seen with GTD?

Theca lutein cysts

28
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What is the cervix status in a threatened abortion?

Closed

29
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What is the cervix status in an inevitable abortion?

Open

30
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What is the definition of a missed abortion?

Fetal demise retained without symptoms

31
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What CRL measurement without cardiac activity indicates demise?

≥ 7 mm

32
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What is the nickname appearance of iniencephaly?

Stargazer sign

33
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What structures are involved in iniencephaly defects?

Occiput and cervical spine

34
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What measurement indicates ventriculomegaly?

> 10 mm

35
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What condition can severe ventriculomegaly lead to?

Hydrocephalus

36
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What does the dangling choroid sign indicate?

Severe ventriculomegaly

37
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What is the hallmark of anencephaly?

Absent skull + absent cerebral hemispheres

38
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What is the hallmark of acrania?

No skull, brain tissue present

39
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What facial sign is associated with anencephaly?

Frog-eye sign

40
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What type of cephalocele contains CSF only?

Meningocele

41
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What type of cephalocele contains brain tissue?

Encephalocele

42
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What is the most severe type of holoprosencephaly?

Alobar

43
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What is the classic facial abnormality for holoprosencephaly?

Cyclopia

44
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What chromosome is associated with holoprosencephaly?

Trisomy 13

45
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What structure is absent/hypoplastic in Dandy Walker?

Cerebellar vermis

46
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What is the posterior fossa finding in Dandy Walker?

Large cystic 4th ventricle

47
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What skull sign is associated with Arnold Chiari II?

Lemon sign

48
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What cerebellum sign is associated with Arnold Chiari II?

Banana sign

49
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What spinal defect is associated with Arnold Chiari II?

Myelomeningocele

50
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What replaces the brain in hydranencephaly?

CSF

51
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Is the cerebellum present in hydranencephaly?

Yes

52
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How many standard deviations below normal is microcephaly?

> 3 SD

53
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By what gestational week does the neural tube close?

Week 4

54
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What lab finding is common to all open neural tube defects?

Elevated AFP

55
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What does spina bifida occulta mean?

Vertebral defect without protrusion

56
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What two types are included in spina bifida cystica?

Meningocele & myelomeningocele

57
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What does meningocele contain?

Meninges + CSF

58
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What does myelomeningocele contain?

Meninges + spinal cord

59
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What does myeloschisis mean?

Open neural plate, no sac

60
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At what level are spinal neural tube defects most common?

Lumbosacral

61
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What process results in hydranencephaly?

Vascular destruction of brain tissue

62
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What process results in holoprosencephaly?

Failure of forebrain division

63
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What is the key difference between hydranencephaly and hydrocephalus?

Hydranencephaly = no cortex; Hydrocephalus = cortex compressed

64
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What does communicating hydrocephalus mean?

No obstruction; absorption problem

65
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What does non-communicating hydrocephalus mean?

CSF flow obstruction

66
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What is the most common site of obstruction in hydrocephalus?

Aqueduct of Sylvius

67
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What does craniosynostosis mean?

Premature fusion of sutures

68
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Brachycephaly results from fusion of which suture?

Coronal

69
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Dolichocephaly results from fusion of which suture?

Sagittal

70
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How is scaphocephaly described?

Long, boat-shaped head

71
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Cloverleaf skull is associated with what condition?

Severe craniosynostosis

72
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What does hypotelorism mean?

Eyes too close

73
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What does hypertelorism mean?

Eyes too far apart

74
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In which anomaly is a proboscis seen?

Holoprosencephaly

75
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Why is the posterior fossa enlarged in Dandy Walker complex?

4th ventricle cystic dilation

76
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What is the difference between absent and hypoplastic vermis?

Absence = classic DW; Hypoplastic = variant

77
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Where does the cerebellum herniate in Arnold Chiari II?

Foramen magnum

78
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Why does the lemon sign occur?

Intracranial pressure + skull molding

79
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Zika infection is associated with what condition?

Microcephaly

80
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Microcephaly often results from early closure of what?

Sutures

81
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What is oligohydramnios defined as?

AFI < 5 cm

82
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What is polyhydramnios defined as?

AFI > 24 cm

83
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What organ fails in oligohydramnios causing Potter sequence?

Kidneys

84
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Where is the defect located in gastroschisis?

Right of umbilicus

85
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Is omphalocele covered by a membrane?

Yes

86
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What are the chromosomes in a complete mole?

46 paternal only

87
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What are the chromosomes in a partial mole?

Triploid (69)

88
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What is fetal bradycardia defined as?

HR < 100 bpm

89
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What is considered abnormal for a large yolk sac?

> 6 mm

90
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What is the appearance of hemivertebrae?

Wedge-shaped vertebra

91
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Kyphosis is a curvature in what direction?

Forward

92
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Scoliosis is a curvature in what plane?

Lateral

93
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What is the key difference between hydranencephaly and anencephaly?

Hydranencephaly has a skull; anencephaly does not.

94
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What is the difference between hydrocephalus and hydranencephaly?

Hydrocephalus has a cortex; hydranencephaly does not.

95
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What is the difference between cephalocele and cystic hygroma?

Cephalocele has a skull defect.

96
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What is the difference between Dandy-Walker and an arachnoid cyst?

Dandy-Walker communicates with the 4th ventricle.

97
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What is the difference between holoprosencephaly and severe hydrocephalus?

Holoprosencephaly lacks falx.

98
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What structure separates the brain hemispheres?

Falx cerebri.

99
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What does the absence of falx indicate?

Holoprosencephaly.

100
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What is a sign of corpus callosum agenesis?

Teardrop ventricles.

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