Integumentary, Digestive, Respiratory & Reproductive Systems – Exam Review Flashcards

A set of Question-and-Answer flashcards covering respiratory, digestive, integumentary, and reproductive systems, designed to help you review key lecture concepts for the upcoming exam.

What body system contains the larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs?

The respiratory system.

In which primary body cavity are the lungs and major airways located?

The thoracic cavity.

How do accessory digestive organs differ from gastrointestinal-tract organs?

Accessory organs aid digestion but food never passes through them, whereas GI-tract organs form the tube food travels through.

Give three examples of accessory digestive organs.

Liver, gallbladder, pancreas (also salivary glands, teeth, tongue).

List four organs of the gastrointestinal (digestive) tract.

Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach (also small intestine, large intestine, anus).

What structures make up the integumentary system?

Skin (integument) plus its derivatives: hair, nails and cutaneous glands.

Name the seven major functions of the integumentary system.

Protection; immune defense; prevention of water loss; metabolic regulation (vitamin D); temperature regulation; sensory reception; excretion by secretion.

What are the three principal layers/regions of the integument from superficial to deep?

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous (hypodermis) layer.

Which specific tissue type composes the epidermis?

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

Which epidermal layer is the site of active mitosis?

The stratum basale.

Name the three cell types found in the stratum basale.

Keratinocytes, melanocytes, and tactile (Merkel) cells.

In which epidermal layer are living keratinocytes and epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells most abundant?

Stratum spinosum.

Which layer of the epidermis begins significant keratinization and forms a water barrier with lipid granules?

Stratum granulosum.

The stratum lucidum is present only in what type of skin?

Thick skin (palms and soles).

Describe the stratum corneum.

20–30 or more layers of dead, flattened keratinocytes that form the tough outer barrier.

List three natural pigments that influence normal skin color.

Melanin, hemoglobin, and carotene.

Which congenital condition results from a lack of melanin production?

Albinism.

What abnormal skin coloration appears blue due to oxygen deficiency?

Cyanosis.

State the ABCDE criteria used for early detection of melanoma.

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter > 6 mm, Evolving/Changing.

What is the functional significance of friction (epidermal) ridges?

They improve grip and create fingerprints.

Name the two layers of the dermis.

Papillary layer (areolar connective tissue) and reticular layer (dense irregular connective tissue).

Why are surgical incisions made parallel to dermal lines of cleavage?

They gape less, heal faster, and scar less because collagen fibers are not cut across.

What tissue predominates in the subcutaneous layer and what does it do?

Adipose tissue; it insulates, stores energy, and anchors skin to deeper structures.

From which epidermal layer are nails derived?

The stratum corneum (modified keratinocytes).

List five functions of hair.

Protection, heat retention, sensory perception, visual identification, and chemical signal dispersal (pheromones).

Which type of sweat gland is most numerous and important for thermoregulation?

Merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands.

Where are apocrine sweat glands found and when do they become active?

In the axillae, nipples, groin, and anus; they activate at puberty and secrete odorous, viscous fluid.

What secretion do sebaceous glands produce and where is it released?

Sebum, an oily/waxy secretion released into hair follicles on thin skin.

Secretions from which gland combine with sebum to form ear wax (cerumen)?

Ceruminous glands in the external acoustic meatus.

Distinguish first-, second-, and third-degree burns by tissue depth affected.

First: epidermis only; Second: epidermis and dermis; Third: epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer.

Which skin cancer arises from the stratum basale and rarely metastasizes?

Basal cell carcinoma.

Identify the female/male reproductive homologues: ovaries, clitoris, labia majora, vestibular glands.

Ovaries ↔ testes; clitoris ↔ glans penis; labia majora ↔ scrotum; vestibular glands ↔ bulbourethral glands.

What two regions form the perineum?

The urogenital triangle (anterior) and the anal triangle (posterior).

Around which day of a typical 28-day ovarian cycle does ovulation occur?

Approximately day 14.

Which anterior pituitary hormones regulate follicular growth and ovulation?

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

What principal hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum?

Progesterone (with some estrogen).

Which embryonic hormone is detected by over-the-counter pregnancy tests?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

Define menopause.

Cessation of menstrual cycles for at least one year, unrelated to pregnancy, typically between ages 45–55.

Name the three layers of the uterine wall.

Perimetrium, myometrium, and endometrium.

During which uterine-cycle phase does the functional layer regenerate?

Proliferative phase.

Where in the female reproductive tract does fertilization usually occur?

In the uterine (fallopian) tube.

What is the purpose of a Pap smear?

Screening for cervical dysplasia or cancer by examining cervical epithelial cells.

Which two hormones control milk production and ejection, respectively?

Prolactin (production) and oxytocin (ejection).

Why are human testes housed in the scrotum outside the pelvic cavity?

Spermatogenesis requires a temperature about 2–3 °C cooler than core body temperature.

Which testicular cells form the blood–testis barrier and support developing sperm?

Sertoli (sustentacular) cells.

What hormone is produced by interstitial (Leydig) cells of the testes?

Testosterone.

Trace the route of sperm from production to exit.

Seminiferous tubules → epididymis → ductus deferens → ampulla → ejaculatory duct → prostatic, membranous, and spongy urethra → external urethral orifice.

Which accessory gland secretes fructose-rich, alkaline seminal fluid?

The seminal vesicle.

Which male gland releases clear mucus that neutralizes the urethra before ejaculation?

Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) gland.

Name the erectile tissues in the penis.

Two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.

Define spermatogenesis.

The process whereby diploid spermatogonia undergo meiosis and maturation to form haploid spermatozoa.

How many chromosomes does a human gamete contain and why?

23 chromosomes; meiosis halves the chromosome number so that fertilization restores the diploid number of 46.

What is meiotic nondisjunction? Give one disorder caused by it.

Failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis, producing aneuploid gametes; example: trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).

List four common sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

Chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, genital herpes (also genital warts, HIV).

Name the permanent surgical birth-control procedures for males and females.

Vasectomy in males and tubal ligation in females.