Bontrager Workbook-Chapter 16: Pediatric Radiography Self Test

C. 3 Years

At what age can most children be talked through a radiographic examination without purposeful immobilization?

A. 1 year

B. 18 months

C. 3 years

D. 5 years

D. Describe the total amount of radiation. The patient will receive with the specific examination if it has to be repeated because of a lack of cooperation.

At the first meeting between the technologist and the patient (accompanied by an adult), which of the following generally should not be discussed?

A. introduce yourself.

B. take the necessary time to explain what you will be doing.

C. Discuss the possible, forceful immobilization that will be needed if the child will not cooperate.

D. Describe the total amount of radiation. The patient will receive with the specific examination if it has to be repeated because of a lack of cooperation.

E. All of these steps must be taken.

D. Hold-em Tiger

Which of the following is not the name of a known commercially available immobilization device?

A. Poi-Tot

B. Tam-em Board

C. Pigg-O-Stat

D. Hold-em Tiger

C. Pigg-O-Stat

The most suitable immobilization device for erect chest and/or the abdomen is the:

A. Poi-Tot

B. Tam-em Board

C. Pigg-O-Stat

D. Hold-em Tiger

A. Proper Immobilization

B. Short Exposure Time

C. Accurate Manual Technique Charts

List the three factors that reduce the number of repeat exposures with pediatric patients.

C. Pigg-O-Stat

Which immobilization device or method should be used for an erect 1-year-old chest procedure? Assume these devices are available.

A. Tam-em Board

B. Hold-down Paddle

C. Pigg-O-Stat

D. Parent holding child

Corner Fracture and Bucket-Handle Fracture

Two common terms for the classic metaphysical lesion, which may indicate child abuse, are _____________ and ______________.

D. Do none of the above

If they technologist, suspect, child abuse, he or she should:

A. ask the parent when the abuse occurred.

B. Report the abuse immediately to the necessary state officials as required by the state.

C. Refused to do the examination or touch the child until a position has examine the patient.

D. Do none of the above.

1. D

2. E

3. EP

4. D

5. E/EP

Complete the following as related to ossification by matching the correct term with the description.

E= Epiphysis; D= Diaphysis; EP= Epiphyseal Plate

1. primary centers

2. secondary centers

3. space between primary and secondary centers

4. occurs before birth

5. continues to change from birth to maturity

D. 3D Ultrasound

which of the following procedures can be performed to diagnose possible genetic fetal abnormalities?

A. nuclear medicine fetal scan

B. spiral/helical CT

C. functional MRI

D. 3D ultrasound

B. Functional MRI

which of the following procedures can be performed to evaluate children for attention deficient hyperactivity disorder?

A. spiral/helical CT

B. functional MRI

C. 3D ultrasound

D. nuclear medicine fetal scan

A. 4

B. 9

C. 7

D. 2

E. 13

F. 3

G. 12

H. 11

I. 1

J. 6

K. 10

L. 8

M. 5

Match each of the following conditions, to its correct definition or statement.

A. Croup

B. Cystic Fibrosis

C. Epiglottitis

D. Osyeochondrosis

E. Osteogenesis Imperfect

F. Salter-Harris Fracture

G. Osteomalacia

H. Hirschsprung Disease

I. Wilms' Tumor

J. Neuroblastoma

K. Pyeloneephritis

L. Attesia

M. Craniostenosis

1. Tumor that usually occurs in children younger than 5.

2. Group of diseases affecting the epiphyseal growth plates.

3. Fracture involving the epiphyseal plate.

4. A common condition in children between the ages of 1-3, caused by a viral infection.

5. Premature closure of the skull sutures.

6. Second-most common form of cancer in children younger than 5 years of age.

7. bacterial infection of the upper airway that may be fatal if untreated.

8. Congenial defect in which an opening into an organ is missing.

9. Inherited disease leading to clogging of bronchi.

10. Bacterial infection of the kidney.

11. Also known as congenial megacolon.

12. Also known as rickets.

13. Inherited condition that produces very fragile bones.

A. -

B. -

C. -

indicate whether the following pathologic conditions require the manual, exposure factors, be increased (+), decreased (-), or remain the same (0):

A. idiopathic juvenile osteoporosis

B. osteomalacia

C. osteogenesis imperfecta

D. Functional MRI

Which of the following imaging modalities is effective and detecting signs of autism?

A. CT

B. Sonography

C. Nuclear Medicine

D. Functional MRI

C. Extend arms upward

Which of the following techniques helps to remove the scapula from the lung fields during chest radiography?

A. Make exposure on the second inspiration.

B. Extend the chin.

C. Extend arms upward.

D. Place arms behind the patient's back.

50-60 kVp

What is the kVp range for a pediatric study of the upper limb?

True

A hand routine for a 7-year-old child would be the same as for an adult patient.

True

For a bone survey of a young child, both limbs are commonly radiographed for comparison.

Kite Method

Which radiographic technique or method is performed to study congenial radiographically?

Between the umbilicus and just above the pubis

Where is gonadal shielding placed for a bilateral hip study on a female pediatric patient?

A. 2

B. 2

C. 1

D. 5

E. 4

F. 1

G. 2

H. 4

I. 1

J. 1

K. 1

Match the following examinations with the clinical indicators with which they are most likely associated.

A. Intussusception

B. NEC

C. Atelectasis

D. Premature closure of fontanelles

E. CHD

F. Cystic Fibrosis

G. Meconium Ileus

H. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease

I. Asthma

J. Bronchiectasis

K. Hyaline Membrane Disease

1. Chest

2. Abdomen

3. Upper and Lower Limbs

4. Pelvis and Hips

5. Skull

D. 30°

How much should the CR be angled to the OML for an AP axial (Towne) projection of the skull?

A. 15°

B. None

C. 25°

D. 30°

B. Midway between glabella and inion

where is the CR centered for a lateral projection of the pediatric skull?

A. At the EAM

B. Midway between glabella and inion

C. 1 inch above the EAM

D. 1/4 inch anterior and superior to the EAM

A. 4 hours

The NPO fasting period for a 6-month-old infant before an upper G.I. is:

A. 4 hours

B. 3 hours

C. 1 hour

D. 6 hours

To diminish the risk of aspiration from vomiting

Other than preventing artifacts in the bowel, what is the other reason that solid food is withheld for 4 hours before a pediatric IVU?

C. Appendicitis

Which of the following conditions contraindicates the use of laxatives before a contrast media procedure?

A. Gastritis

B. Blood in stool

C. Appendicitis

D. Diverticulosis

A. Level of Iliac Crest

B. 1 inch above umbilicus

Where is the CR centered for a KUB on:

A. An 8-year-old child?

B. A 3-month-old infant?

Mammillary Level (nipple line)

Where is the CR centered for a PA and lateral pediatric chest projection?

6-12 ounces

What is the recommended amount of barium administered to an infant who is having an upper GI?

manually, very slowly, using a 60mL syringe and a number 10 French flexible silicone catheter

How is the barium instilled into the large bowel for a barium enema study on an infant?

There is no bowel preparation required.

What is the bowel prep for a pediatric VCUG?

When the bladder is full, and when voiding

When is urinary reflux most likely to occur during a VCUG?

1 hour

For a young pediatric small bowel study, the barium normally reaches the ileocecal region in:

A. Vesicoureteral Reflux

B. Before

A VCUG on a child is most commonly performed to evaluate for _____________ _______ and is generally scheduled to be completed _________ an IVU or ultrasound of the kidneys.

False

Gonadal shielding should only be used in supine positions because of the difficulty in keeping the shield in place.

True

there should be no attempt to straighten out the abnormal alignment of the foot during a club foot study.

B. AP and Lateral Upper Airway

Which photographic procedure is commonly performed for epiglottitis?

A. Sinus Series

B. AP and Lateral Upper Airway

C. CT of chest

D. Functional MRI

D. AP and Lateral Knee

Which of the following radiographic routines and/or procedures best demonstrates Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A. Barium Enema

B. AP and Lateral Hip

C. Upper GI

D. AP and Lateral Knee

B. Inform the supervisor or physician.

A 2-year-old child comes to the radiology department for a routine chest examination. While removing the child's shirt, you notice a human bike mark on the upper arm. What should you do next?

A. Call hospital security

B. Inform the supervisor or physician.

C. Interview the parents about the injury.

D. Interview the child about the injury.

C. Spina Bifida

which of the following conditions can be diagnosed prenatally with sonography?

A. Tourette Syndrome.

B. Vesicoureteral Reflux

C. Spina Bifida

D. Autism