Clin Path Exam 1 + 2 Test Q's

from the exams

Which organism is classified as being a prokaryotic cell?

A. Yeast

B. Viruses

C. Fungi

D. Bacteria

D

At which stage of the disease process is virus isolation most successful?

A. After the animal has died

B. Early in the active infectious phase

C. Midway through the infectious phase

D. Late in the disease process

B

T/F Blood agar is good at supporting growth of most pathogenic bacteria.

True

Which of the following is the most common reason for the inability to diagnose a disease involving microorganisms?

A. Antibiotic therapy

B. Contamination of the sample

C. Sampling too early

D. Insufficient sample

B

What is the thioglycollate broth used for?

a. To determine the degree of motility of the specimen incubated.

b. To determine microbes’ oxygen tolerance

c. To determine whether or not a strain of bacteria is pathogenic.

d. Used to disinfect instruments that came in contact with zoonotic agents.

e. A blood-based broth used for the culture of systemic fungal pathogens.

B

The following is not a spiral/comma-shaped bacteria:

a. Campylobacter fetus

b. Borrelia anserina

c. Leptospira pomona

d. Staphococcus aureus

D

Which phase of the bacterial growth curve is in a state of homeostasis?

A. Initial / lag phase

B. Exponential

C. Stationary

D. Logarithmic decline

C

Which stain/test would be used to view Mycobacterium species (poor gram staining) in a sample?

A. Potassium hydroxide test

B. Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) stain

C. Giemsa stain

D. Gram stain

B

Organisms that require oxygen to survive would be classified as?

A. Facultative anaerobes

B. Obligate aerobes

C. Obligate anaerobes

D. Capnophilic

B

Which "organism type" requires penetration of living cells to be able to replicate?

A. Yeast

B. Bacteria

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

D

Which type of culture medium allows bacteria to group themselves by their biochemical reactions?

A. Enriched

B. Selective

C. Differential

D. General purpose

C

An example of a source (area) that is likely to have a single organism type is:

A. Ear

B. Purulent draining tract

C. Feces

D. Urine collected by cystocentesis

D

Which agar would be used for the same purpose that MacConkey agar would be used?

A. Kirby Bauer agar

B. Blood agar

C. EMB agar (Eosin-Methylene blue)

D. Mueller-Hinton agar

C

Dermatophyte Test Media is based on which of the following agars?

A. Mueller-Hinton agar

B. MacConkey agar

C. Sabouraud dextrose agar

D. Mannitol salt agar

C

Which type of culture medium contains antibacterial substances (such as bile salts for example) that inhibit or kill all but the types of bacteria desired?

A. Enriched

B. Differential

C. Selective

D. General purpose

C

If the Gram stain reveals Gram variable results. Which procedure could be performed to confirm the stain results?

A. Potassium hydroxide (3%) test

B. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

C. Giemsa stain

D. Oxidase test

A

The stain that is primarily used to detect spirochetes and rickettsiae is:

A. Giemsa stain

B. Gram stain

C. Carbol fuchsin

D. Ziehl-Neelsen

A

Blood agar would be considered to be which type of culture medium?

A. Enriched

B. Selective

C. Transport

D. Inhibitory

A

When preparing to work with a culture, list two reasons is it important to disinfect your working surface before you work with the culture? (2 pts.)

• avoid contamination of workspace/ self

• prevent contamination of culture

If a technician were interested in replicating a known fastidious pathogen (specific nutrient requirement), which type of culture medium would be used?

A. Enriched

B. Selective

C. Differential

D. General purpose

A

From which sample would you exptect to find very few if any colonies?

A. Ear swab from a Labrador

B. Urine collected by cystocentesis

C. Feces from colon scraping

D. Purulent discharge from a wound

B

Which method is the preferred for obtaining viral samples for evaluation of acute stage of respiratory diseases?

A. Swabs of secretion

B. Mucosal scraping

C. Blood samples

D. Aspiration from lungs

B

How would a clear area of blood agar under a bacterial colony be recorded?

A. Alpha hemolysis

B. Beta hemolysis

C. Gamma hemolysis

D. Delta hemolysis

B

Which is the medium of choice to grow gram-negative bacteria such as Enterobacteriaceae?

A. Thioglycolate broth

B. MacConkey agar

C. Triple sugar iron agar

D. Simmons citrate tubes

B

T/F Blood agar is good at supporting growth of most pathogenic bacteria.

True

A positive result in motility media would appear as which of the following?

A. No growth

B. Growth only along the inoculation line

C. Diffuse growth or fuzziness throughout the media

D. Blackening throughout the media

D

What is released from helper T cells and activates B cells?

A. Antigens

B. Antibodies

C. Cytokines

D. Conjugate

C

Substances that are capable of inducing a response from the immune system are referred to as:

A. Antibodies

B. Antigens

C. NK cells

D. CD4+ cells

B

What is the group of proteins found in the blood that are integral in both the innate (more active in the innate) and adaptive immune systems called? (They are activated in a cascade action.)

A. Opsonization

B. Phagocytosis

C. Complement system

D. Active immunity

C

Which term refers to the binding of antibodies to the antigen that promotes phagocytosis?

A. Interferons

B. Opsonization

C. Vaccination

D. Cell-mediated immunity

B

In which test is a sample added to a test slide that has been pre-coated with fluorescent dye-conjugated antibodies and then examined with a special microscope?

A. Direct fluorescent antibody testing

B. Coombs test

C. Radioimmunoassay

D. Immunodiffusion

A

A coagulase test should be done on a sample with which of the following parameters, to determine the presence of coagulase?

A. Gram negative, catalase negative

B. Gram positive, catalase negative

C. Gram negative, catalase positive

D. Gram positive, catalase positive

D

Why is it that the first transfusion of DEA 1.1-positive blood to a DEA 1.1 - negative may not lead to an immediate reaction in the animal?

A. There is little chance of a reaction to this DEA group.

B. Natural occurring anti-DEA 1.1 antibodies are not known to exist.

C. There are very few anti-DEA 1.1 antibodies.

D. Antibodies exist but usually do not cause issues.

B

Which immunoassay test is used when testing bovine serum for Brucellosis antibodies?

A. ELISA

B. cELISA

C. Latex agglutination

D. Rapid immunomigration (RIM)

A

What is the term for specific surface markers on erythrocytes that are determined genetically? These surface markers can interact with existing antibodies or induce anti-body formation.

A. Alloantibodies

B. Blood group antigens

C. Dog antisera

D. Angioedema

B

Which of the following cell types is a precursor of the cell that produces antibodies?

A. T lymphocytes

B. Interferons

C. Natural killer (NK) cells

D. B lymphocytes

D

What percentage of dermatophyte infections of cats are Microsporum canis?

A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 70%

D. 95% (or higher)

D

What occurs when using a Snap ELISA test to indicate a positive test for an antigen?

A. Agglutination occurs.

B. Color appears in only the positive control dot.

C. No color appears.

D. Color appears in the positive control dot and in the test "dot".

D

The first antibody type produced in response to an antigen is ____. It is a pentameric molecule (5 sections), and so large it is unable to enter tissue spaces.

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

A

What is the most likely outcome if a DEA 1.1–negative dog previously received a transfusion with DEA 1.1–positive blood and now receives a second transfusion with DEA 1.1–positive blood?

A. No problems will occur.

B. A severe reaction may occur within 24 hours after the second transfusion.

C. A mild reaction may occur within 4 hours after the second transfusion.

D. A severe reaction can occur in less than 1 hour after the second transfusion.

D

Which immune system uses physical and chemical barriers in order to prevent tissue injury or infection?

A. Cell-mediated

B. Humoral

C. Innate

D. Adaptive

C

What may be the outcome if a mare has antibodies in her serum to a foal's erythrocytes?

A. No adverse reaction

B. Mild reaction

C. Neonatal isoerythrolysis

D. Allergic reaction

C

Which is a systemic zoonotic, dimorphic fungus that can grow as a yeast or a mycelial fungus depending on temperature? This should only be cultured in a reference lab.

A. Histoplasma spp.

B. Penicillium spp.

C. Aspergillus spp.

D. Microsporum spp.

A

What happens the first time a dog is given a mismatched transfusion?

A. Anaphylactic reaction occurs immediately.

B. Antibodies are formed against the WBCs of the donor sample.

C. Antigens form against the RBC antibodies from the transfused sample.

D. Antibodies form against the RBC antigens from the transfused sample.

D

A technician is asked to collect a serum sample for an immunoassay test. What is the best type of vacutainer to use for this collection?

A. Red-top

B. Green-top

C. Lavender-top

D. Blue-top

A

This gram positive rod causes diseases based on the type of exo- toxin that it produces.

A. Bacillus spp.

B. Streptococcus spp.

C. Enterococcus spp.

D. Clostridium spp.

D

A client calls the hospital and reports that a young Arabian foal has died after an acute illness. Based on the foals breed, what type of immune disorder should be considered in this case?

A. Anaphylactic shock

B. Combined immunodeficiency

C. Immune complex disease

B

Which immune system is responsible for the production of antibodies?

A. Innate immune system

B. Cell-mediated immunity

C. Complement system

D. Humoral immune system

D

Which type of vaccine normally causes a longer-lasting and more potent immunity?

A. Attenuated (MLV)

B. Fraction

C. Adjuvant

D. Killed

A

An autoimmune response in which the body's antibodies attack its own cells is referred as which of the following?

A. Anaphylactic shock – Type I (Atopy)

B. Hypersensitivity - Type II (IMHA)

C. Immune complex disease – Type III (Glomerulonephritis)

D. Lymphoma

B

Antigen-stimulated B cells differentiate into plasma cells and _____ that responds faster to a second exposure of that specific antigen?

A. T lymphocytes

B. Memory B cells

C. Helper T cells

D. NK cells

B

What is the primary function of the B lymphocytes?

A. Production of immunoglobulins

B. Production of complement proteins

C. Inflammatory response

D. Release interferons

A

Which sensitivity test is the most precise but takes several steps and more time to perform?

A. McFarland Sensitivity test

B. Direct Kirby-Bauer sensitivity test

C. FDA Diffusion technique

D. Indirect Kirby-Bauer sensitivity test

D