[Practice Questions] - PMOC Sample 275 items concepts only

Proverbs 16:3

acyclovir

This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:

a. oseltamivir

b. acyclovir

c. zidovudine

d. fomivirsen

f. pleconaril

Linezolid

an oxazolidinedione antibiotics that can inhibit 30s and 70s ribosomes:

a. bacitracin

b. mupirocin

c. fosfomycin

d. Linezolid

1 and 2

The main goal of this metabolic reactions is to attach small, polar, ionizable endogenous substrate:

I. Conjugation reaction

II. Phase II Metabolism

III. Functionalization reaction

IV. Phase I Metabolism

a. 2 and 3

b. 2 and 4

c. 1 and 4

d. 3 and 4

f. 1 and 2

penicillin benzathine

A depo penicillin preparation:

a. penicillin benzathine

b. amoxicillin

c. penicillin G

d. penicillin V

e. ampicillin

Paul Ehrlich

The scientist who can lay claim to the title of "Father of Chemotherapy":

a. Alexander Fleming

b. Friedrich Wohler

c. Joseph Lister

d. Paul Ehrlich

e. August Kekule

1 and 2

Which among the following sulfonamides used for burn therapy?

1. Mafenide acetate

2. Silver sulfadiazine

3. Sulfixosazole

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 3

e. 1 and 2

penicillamine

This is an effective antidote for the treatment of copper poisoning:

a. dimercaprol

b. deferoxamine mesylate

c. BAL

d. penicillamine

denatured alcohol

The alcohol "unfit for use":

a. denatured alcohol

b. absolute alcohol

c. dehydrated alcohol

d. completely denatured alcohol

f. distilled alcohol

povidone iodine

A combination of non - ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:

a. povidone iodine

b. Iodine tincture

c. Wagner's solution (Iodine in KI)

d. phenol-glycerol mixture

e. Lugol's solution (strong iodine)

HIV/AIDS

Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:

a. SARS-COV2

b. Koch Bacilli

c. HIV/AIDS

d. Dengue

e. HBV

ribavirin

used for severe LRTI cause by RSV in carefully selected hospitalized infants and young children

a. foscarnet

b. ribavirin

c. chloramphenicol

d. adefovir

e. ganciclovir

penicillins

Antibiotics that targets the cell wall:

a. lincomycins

b. nystatin

c. chloramphenicol

d. penicillins

primaquine

Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:

a. quinine

b. artemisinin

c. quinine

d. chloroquine

e. primaquine

terbinafine

Which among the following can inhibit squalene epoxidase?

a. nystatin

b. terbinafine

c. metronidazole

d. fluconazole

streptomycin

The following antibiotic possess clinically useful anti - malignant property, except:

a. bleomycin

b. daunorubicin

c. mitomycin

d. streptomycin

e. plicamycin

chloramphenicol

Gray-baby syndrome is usually associated in which among the following antibiotics?

a. tobramycin

b. vancomycin

c. sulfonamide

d. piperacillin

e. chloramphenicol

anthelmintics

Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrantel pamoate and thiabendazole are all:

a. antibacterial dye

b. antifungal

c. pediculides

d. anthelmintics

e. anti-protozoal

erythromycin

A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo (Ilosone):

a. erythromycin

b. clindamycin

c. clarithromycin

d. mycostatin

e. spiramycin

methylene blue

Which among the following is an example of a thiazine dye?

a. basic-fuchsin

b. crystal violet

c. gentian violet

d. methylene blue

trimethoprim

Is a dihydrofolate - reductase inhibitor:

a. sulfamethoxazole

b. monobactam

c. trimethoprim

d. tetracycline

e. methotrexate

sodium dithionite solution

The stain of the urinary analgesic phenazopyridine HCl can be removed using:

a. muriatic acid

b. oxalic acid

c. sodium hypochlorite

d. bleach

e. sodium dithionite solution

ester

Chemically, procaine is classified as:

a. ester

b. ketone

c. ether

d. phenol

e. amide

praziquantel

Drug of choice for Schistosoma mansoni:

a. niridazole

b. praziquantel

c. thiocarbazine

d. bithionol

e. mebendazole

streptomycin

Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:

a. ethambutol

b. rifampicin

c. streptomycin

d. isoniazid

e. pyrazinamide

urotropin

Methenamine is also called:

a. uridine

b. azo-gantrisin

c. pyrazinoic acid

d. uric acid

e. urotropin

3 only

A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:

1. Griseofulvin

2. Econazole

3. Nystatin

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3

d. 3 only

e. 1, 2 and 3

guanine

Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?

a. uracil

b. adenine

c. cytosine

d. guanine

e. thymine

ROR

What is the type of the chemical Methoxyethane:

a. RCHO

b. ROR

c. RCOR

d. RCOOH

e. RCOOR

benzoyl peroxide

This agent can induce proliferation of epithelial cells leading to sloughing and repair:

a. salicylic acid

b. hydrogen peroxide

c. benzyl benzoate

d. benzoyl peroxide

e. carbamide peroxide

ototoxic

Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:

a. carcinogenic

b. hepatotoxic

c. can lead to pulmonary fibrosis

d. ototoxic

e. can cause kidney damage

valacyclovir

Prodrug of Acyclovir with better bioavailability.

a. famciclovir

b. penciclovir

c. ganciclovir

d. valacyclovir

oseltamivir

Which among the following drug can be used for viral influenza:

a. metronidazole

b. acyclovir

c. vidarabine

d. oseltamivir

e. amoxicillin

amantadine

Antiviral that has effect as anti-Parkinsonian agent:

a. tocilizumab

b. lamivudine

c. amantadine

d. remdesivir

TB-DOTS

Currently, the most effective regimen for TB that is usually given by the rural health units:

a. Anti-tubercular vaccine

b. swab test/rapid test kit

c. TB-DOTS

d. RT-PCR test

Isoniazid

Which among the following combination used for TB that can commonly cause peripheral neuropathy?

a. Vitamin B6

b. rifampicin

c. ethambutol

d. Isoniazid

e. pyrazinamide

phenoxyethyl penicillin

The chemical name of phenethicillin:

a. benzyl penicillin

b. phenoxymethyl penicillin

c. phenoxyethyl penicillin

d. phenoxypropylpenicillin

1, 2, 3, 4

Antibiotics CI during pregnancy:

1. Aminoglycosides

2. Erythromycin estolate

3. Clarithromycin

4. Tetracyclines

a. 1 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

e. 4 only

inhibitor of HIV protease

Mechanism of action of Ritonavir:

a. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

b. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

c. inhibitor of HIV protease

d. inhibitor of RNA polymerase

1 and 4

An example of neuraminidase inhibitors:

1. Zanamivir

2. Amantadine

3. Rimantadine

4. Oseltamivir

a. 3 and 4

b. 1 and 4

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 4

e. 2 and 3

vinca alkaloids

bind to tubulin disrupting formation and function of the mitotic spindle by arresting mitosis by inhibiting the polymerization of microtubules

a. imatinib

b. thiotepa

c. vinca alkaloids

d. cisplatin

e. bleomycin

salicylic acid

Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:

a. oxalic acid

b. salicylic acid

c. salicylaldehyde

d. acetic acid

e. citric acid

mesna

indicated for ifosfamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis:

a. pyridoxine

b. dexrazoxane

c. mesna

d. panthotenic acid

e. amifostine

Amphotericin B

For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous route?

a. Nystatin

b. Ketoconazole

c. Amphotericin B

d. Clotrimazole

e. Miconazole

ether

the chemical CH₃OCH₃ is an example of what type of organic compound?

a. ether

b. alcohol

c. ester

d. aldehyde

e. ketone

2 and 3

MOA of aminoglycosides;

1. Interferes with cell wall synthesis

2. act directly on the bacterial ribosome to inhibit the initiation of protein synthesis

3. interferes with the fidelity of translation of the genetic message

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3

d. 1, 2 and 3

e. 2 only

1, 2 and 3

Which is correct about carbol-fuchsin solution?

1. Component of castellani's paint

2. Treatment of fungal infections

3. Mixture of chloride of rosaniline and p-rosaniline chloride

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

e. 1, 2 and 3

benzalkonium chloride

the present day "gamot na pula" contains":

a. cetylpyridinium chloride

b. thimerosal

c. benzalkonium chloride

d.nitromersol

e. benzoyl peroxide

onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity

A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:

a. systemic toxicity should be low

b. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves

c. effective at body fluid pH

d. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity

e. must be effective regardless of the site of application

embalming agent

Which among the following is/are use of formalin?

a. antipyretic agent

b. embalming agent

c. antiseptic for wounds

d. analgesic

e. can be used as gargle or mouthwash

bleomycin

Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with the use of:

a. cisplatin

b. vinca alkaloids

c. methotrexate

d. nitrosureas

e. bleomycin

methyl propanoate

The chemical CH₃CH₂COOCH₃ is given what IUPAC name?

a. ethylmethyl ether

b. butanone

c. butanoic acid

d. butanal

e. methyl propanoate

lead drug

The first compound in the development of a drug that has the desired biological and physiochemical properties:

a. prodrug

b. linker protein

c. latentiated drug

d. lead drug

lead drug

The first compound in the development of a drug that has the desired biological and physiochemical properties:

a. prodrug

b. linker protein

c. latentiated drug

d. lead drug

alopecia (hair loss)

A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:

a. anaphylaxis

b. mydriasis

c. bulging fontanel

d. ataxia

e. alopecia

ketoconazole

First orally active broad spectrum imidazole antifungal:

a. itraconazole

b. ketoconazole

c. miconazole

d. clotrimazole

e. fluconazole

periwinkle

The plant containing the anti-cancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine:

a. taxol

b. mayapple

c. periwinkle

d. campthoteca

e. mandrake

vancomycin

This antibiotic can lead to anaphylactoid reaction due to histamine release when this antibiotic was rapidly infused:

a. amikacin

b. bacitracin

c. vancomycin

d. gentamicin

e. clindamycin

nafcillin

Examples of isoxazoyl penicillin, except:

a. dicloxacillin

b. oxacillin

c. nafcillin

d. cloxacillin

adefovir

DOC for chronic form of Hepatitis B:

a. lamivudine

b. adefovir

c. silymarine

d. essentiale forte

pentafuside

Inhibits formation of the fusion component conformation of gp41.

a. efavirenz

b. pentafuside

c. delavirdine

d. indinavir

bicalutamide

An androgen receptor antagonist:

a. tamoxifen

b. bicalutamide

c. depo-provera

d. megestrol acetate

nicotine

A common agent in smoking cessation program providing patches:

a. nicotine

c. emetine

d. lobeline

e. quinine

f. scopolamine

mebendazole

inhibition of glucose uptake leading to

• depleted glycogen storage ==> decrease ATP synthesis

a. pyrantel pamoate

b. bithionol

c. mebendazole

d. thiabendazole

e. ivermectin

oil of wintergreen

Methylsalicylate is also known as:

a. oil of wintergreen

b. toothache drops

c. jasmine oil

d. otto of rose

e. juniper oil

I only

The most common Phase I metabolism is:

I. Oxidation

II. Reduction

III. Hydrolysis

a. I only

b. II and III

c. I and III

d. III only

e. II only

f. I and II

cefepime

An example of fourth generation cephalosporins:

a. cefuroxime

b. cefepime

c. cephradine

d. ceftaroline

e. cefixime

niridazole

All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris lumbricoides, except:

a. piperazine

b. albendazole

c. thiabendazole

d. mebendazole

e. niridazole

ciprofloxacin

A fluoroquinolone:

a. ciprofloxacin

b. itraconazole

c. nalidixic acid

d. amoxicillin

e. cotrimazine

lamivudine

Nucleoside analogue similar to ddC.

a. lamivudine

b. stavudine

c. zalcitabine

d. azidothmidine

1 only

Common side effects of Aminoglycoside antibiotics, except:

1. Hepatotoxicity

2. Nephrotoxicity

3. Ototoxicity

a. 3 only

b. 1 only

c. 1 and 2

d. 2 and 3 only

e. 2 only

f. 2 and 3

1 and 3

The alkaloid from Ipecac is commonly employed as:

1. Emetic

2. Analgesic

3. Anti-protozoal

a. 2 and 3

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 1 and 2

e. 1 only

topoisomerase I

Irinotecan inhibits:

a. protein kinases

b. topoisomerase I

c. DNA polymerase

d. tubulin synthesis

e. topoisomerase II

cloxacillin

Which of the following penicillin is resistant to penicillinase?

a. thienamycin

b. flucloxacillin

c. carbenicillin

d. cloxacillin

e. polymyxin B

acyclovir

Which among the following drug is considered as the drug of choice for chicken pox?

a. chloramphenicol

b. adefovir

c. co-trimoxzaole

d. acyclovir

e. vancomycin

undecylenic acid

Prevents contamination; The following are preservatives, except:

a. undecylenic acid

b. benzoic acid

c. potassium sorbate

d. methylparaben

quinacrine

The most toxic anti-malarial drug:

a. quinacrine

b. aralen

c. chloroquine

d. quinine

e. primaquine

etoposide

The anticancer obtained from mayapple or mandrake:

a. vincristine

b. topotecan

c. etoposide

d. taxol

etoposide

Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an anti-metabolite?

a. thioguanine

b. etoposide

c. methotrexate

d. fluorouracil

e. cytarabine

nalidixic acid

An example of first generation quinolone:

a. moxifloxacin

b. ciprofloxacin

c. nalidixic acid

d. ofloxacin

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following is/are true regarding phase II drug metabolism?

1. allows attachment of small, polar, and ionizable endogenous compounds

2. allows termination or attenuation of a biological activity

3. serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites

a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

e. 2 and 3

sulfa drugs

The collective term given to aniline-substituted sulfonamides/sulfanilamides:

a. TB-DOTS

b. prodrug

c. silver sulfadiazine

d. sulfa drugs

e. HAART

cresol

Yellow to brownish-yellow liquid that has a characteristic creosote odor:

a. eugenol

b. resorcinol

c. hydroquinone

d. cresol

e. thymol

phenol

general protoplasmic poison:

a. phenol

b. dimercaprol

c. salvarsan

d. ethylene oxide

e. isopropyl alcohol

positional

o - xylene and m - xylene are what type of isomers?

a. functional

b. positional

c. geometric

d. chain

pseudomonal

Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following anti-infective conditions, except:

a. pseudomonal

b. gonococcal

c. treponema

d. streptococcal

dapsone

DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis:

a. dapsone

b. streptomycin

c. metronidazole

d. vancomycin

e. rifampicin

propylparaben

A parahydroxybenzoic acid effective against growth of yeast:

a. methylparaben

b. gamma amino benzoic acid

c. propylparaben

d. para amino benzoic acid

inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

Zidovudine is an example of:

a. fusion inhibitors

b. inhibitor of viral RNA polymerase

c. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

d. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

cinchonism

toxic syndrome characterized by tinnitus, headache, nausea, disturbed vision associated with the use of cinchona extract like quinine:

a. charotism

b. optic neuropathy

c. ergotism

d. pseudomembranous colitis

e. cinchonism

lincomycin

Isolated from Lincolnensis; which of the following contains sulfur?

a. penicillin G

b. lincomycin

c. clindamycin

d. clarithromycin

ampicillin

All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:

a. streptomycin

b. kanamycin

c. ampicillin

d. neomycin

e. amikacin

nitrofurans

The first nitroheterocyclic compounds used in chemotherapy:

a. methenamine

b. nitrofurans

c. thiotepa

d. quinolones

e. aminoglycosides

tautomers

Propanone and 1 - propen-1-ol are considered as _____ isomers.

a. positional

b. epimers

c. configurational

d. tautomers

e. enantiomers

1, 2 and 3

Sulfanilamide is a generic term that denotes:

1. Aniline-substituted sulfonamides/sulfanilamides

2. Prodrugs that generate active sulfanilamides

3. Non-aniline sulfonamide like mafenide acetate

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 only

d. 1 and 3

e. 2 and 3

organoplatinum

Which among the following alkylating agents establishes cross-links within and between DNA strands?

a. organoplatinum

b. procarbazine

c. nitrosoureas

d. nitrogen mustards

lomefloxacin

The most phototoxic quinolone:

a. ciprofloxacin

b. levofloxacin

c. sparfloxacin

d. lomefloxacin

e. moxifloxacin

anomers

These are isomers that are not mirror images of each other differing only in position of moieties at the first carbon.

a. enantiomers

b. tautomers

c. isotopes

d. epimers

e. anomers

inhibition of DNA gyrase

Mechanism of action of quinolones:

a. inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

b. inhibition of DNA gyrase

c. act as false membrane component

d. inhibition of tubulin assembly

e. inhibition of translation to prokaryotes

foscarnet

Trisodium phosphonoformate:

• organic analogue of inorganic pyrophosphate:

a. vidarabine

b. plecoranil

c. fosmidomycin

d. foscarnet

trimethoprim

A dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor:

a. trimethoprim

b. dapsone

c. ciprofloxacin

d. chloramphenicol

e. sulfamethoxazole