PPL Oral Exam

What are the certification requirements to obtain a PPL?

1. Pass knowledge test with a score of 70%.

2. Hold a 3rd class medical certificate.

3. Receive the required ground and flight training.

What are the PPL currency requirements to carry passengers?

To carry passengers you must complete 3 landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if required) within the preceding 90 days.

What are the PPL night currency requirements to carry passengers?

3 complete landings to a full stop in the same category, class, and type (if required) aircraft.

For the purposes of currency requirements, what is the definition of "night?"

1 hour after sunset until 1 hour before sunrise

What frequency is a flight review required to maintain currency?

Once per 24 months.

What are the privileges of a private pilot?

1. Can act as PIC of aircraft towing gliders.

2. Can demonstrate aircraft to prospective buyers as a salesperson.

3. Can act as PIC of an aircraft that is incidental to a business.

Explain the types of medical certificates.

1. 1st class medical: required to be an ATP. Valid for 12 months (6 months if over the age of 40).

2. 2nd class medical: required to obtain a commercial pilot license. Valid for 24 months

3. 3rd class medical: required to obtain a private pilot license. Valid for 60 months (24 months if over the age of 40).

What documents are required to exercise the privileges of a private pilot?

1. Government issued photo ID.

2. PPL certificate.

3. 3rd class medical certificate.

What documents are required to be on board the aircraft?

A - Airworthiness certificate

R - Registration

R - Radio license (int'l flights)

O - Owner's manual

W - Weight & Balance

What are the privileges and limitations of a basic medical certificate?

- basic med allows a person to fly with a PPL without obtaining a 3rd class (or better) medical certificate

The following limitations are applicable:

- basic med is valid for 4 years

- requires a training course (online) every 2 years

- cannot fly an aircraft with more than 6 passenger seats

- cannot fly an aircraft over 6000 lbs gross weight

- cannot fly above 18,000 ft

- cannot exceed 250 kts

- cannot fly for compensation

Discuss the difference between proficiency and currency.

Currency refers to complying with the requirements to remain legal to fly (e.g. keep up with biennial fligh reviews). Proficiency refers to taking steps to maintain flying skills, risk management skills, and knowledge of how to safely operate an aircraft. Examples of ways to maintain proficiency would be scheduling dual flight lessons periodically, performing solo practice of flight maneuvers, practicing landings solo, etc.

What are the required inspections for an airplane?

A - airworthiness directives

V - VOR (every 30 days, IFR only)

I - Inspections: annual & 100 hour (if airplane flown for hire)

A - altimeter (every 24 months)

T - transponder (every 24 months)

E - Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) (every 12 months)

S - static system (every 24 months)

What is an airworthiness directive?

A directive issued by the FAA, requiring inspection or maintenance to rectify a defect in a particular aircraft. Airworthiness directives are mandatory (and legally enforceable).

Define a Special Airworthiness Information Bulletin

Information bulletin issued by the FAA with recommendations to the aviation community; however, any advice contained within them is not mandatory.

What is a special flight permit?

A special flight permit temporarily grants airworthiness to an airplane that otherwise does not meet airworthiness requirements. They can be obtained by a local Flight Standards District Office. An example of when one may be sought out is if an airplane's annual is expired, but a mechanic is unavailable to perform the annual inspection at the airplane's home airport. When a Special Flight Permit is granted, it will have very specific constraints in terms of when and where you can fly to.

Describe what preventive maintenance may be performed by a pilot.

Anyone holding at least a PPL may perform maintenance pertaining to simple preservation operations or replacement of small, standard parts. A common example is topping off the oil.

If a pilot performs preventive maintenance, they must enter a description of the work, the date, and their name, certificate number, type of certificate, and signature in the airplane maintenance logbook.

What equipment is required for a daytime VFR flight?

A - airspeed indicator

T - tachometer

O - oil pressure gauge

M - manifold pressure gauge (if engine is not naturally aspirated)

A - altimeter

T - temperature gauge (if engine is liquid cooled)

O - oil temperature gauge

F - fuel gauge

L - landing gear position indicator

A - anti-collision lights (aircraft certified after 1996) (the strobe or rotating beacons)

M - magnetic compass

E - ELT

What additional equipment is required for night flights?

F - fuses, complete spare set (unless aircraft uses circuit breakers)

L - landing light (only if flying for hire)

A - anti-collision lights (strobes/rotating beacon) (aircraft certified after 1971)

P - position lights (red/green/white)

S - source of electricity (alternator or generator)

What is the procedure for flying with inoperative equipment?

If the equipment that is inoperative is NOT required for flight under 14 CFR Part 91, or any applicable Minimum Equipment List (MEL), the procedure is to remove the equipment, or deactivate it, and place a placard next to it indicating "INOPERATIVE." An example of how to deactivate equipment would be to pull out the circuit breaker.

Define a Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

A minimum equipment list specifies the minimum subset of equipment required to fly a specific aircraft. Required by part 121 and part 135 operators.

What is a Master Minimum Equipment List?

An MMEL is a list of all available equipment on an airplane, and it specifies what may be inoperative for a flight to be performed safely still. It is published in the POH.

What is a Kinds of Operation Equipment List?

A KOEL defines what equipment is required for a particular aircraft for different kinds of operations the aircraft will be utilized for. Published in the AFH/POH.

What is standard temperature and pressure?

15C (59F)

29.92" Hg (1013 hPa)

What is an AIRMET?

Inflight weather advisory concerning weather conditions potentially hazardous to a light aircraft and/or VFR pilots.

What are the types of AIRMETS?

Tango: moderate turbulence and surface winds up to 30 kts

Zulu: moderate icing, freezing levels

What is a SIGMET?

Weather advisory warning of weather hazardous to all aircraft, including sever icing, turbulence, sandstorms, and visibility below 3 miles.

What is a Convective SIGMET?

Warns of squall line thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail >3/4" diameter, and wind gusts >50 kts.

What are the 3 basic elements of the weather?

Temperature, wind, and moisture.

What is the cause of all weather?

A heat exchange

What causes wind?

Uneven heating of earth's surface causes changes in air density, and ultimately pressure. The difference in pressure cause air to flow from high pressure areas to areas of lower pressure.

What are the characteristics of stable air?

- air that resists vertical movement

- relatively cool and dry

- poor visibility

- very smooth

- steady precipitation

- stratiform clouds

What are the characteristics of unstable air?

- warm and moist

- lots of vertical movement causing turbulence

- good visibility

- showery precipitation

- cumulus clouds

In what direction does air circulate around pressure areas?

- clockwise around high-pressure areas

- counter-clockwise around low-pressure areas

How do convective currents form near bodies of water?

Land heats faster than water, so air over land masses rises. Simultaneously, cooler air over the water flows under the rising air, causing a breeze flowing inland.

The opposite is true at night: water cools slower than adjacent land masses, causing a breeze out to sea.

What is the cause of mountain wave turbulence?

Wind flows smoothly up one side, but becomes turbulent when flowing over terrain on the leeward side.

What is wind shear?

When wind direction or speed changes suddenly over a small area. Wind shear can cause updrafts, downdrafts, or lateral movement.

Low-level shear is associated with passing fronts, thunderstorms, temperature inversions, and wind gusts greater than 25 kts.

What is a temperature inversion?

When the air temperature increases with altitude. Causes smooth and stable air near the ground.

Define dew point.

The temperature at which air can hold no more moisture, and condensation begins to form.

How can you estimate the height of the cloud base?

By using the temperature/dew-point spread and the standard lapse rate. Taking the difference between temperature and dewpoint, dividing by 4.4, and multiplying by 1000' will give an estimate for the height of clouds.

What is the lapse rate?

The rate at which temperature decreases with altitude.

What is relative humidity?

The amount of water vapor contained in the air relative to the total amount the air can hold. (ex: 80% R.H. means the air is 80% saturated)

When does precipitation occur?

Water vapor condenses due to air cooling towards the dew point, causing clouds to form. As water (or ice) particles coalesce and reach a size that can no longer be supported by the air, they fall in the form of precipitation.

What is an air mass?

A body of air with horizontally uniform temperature, humidity, and pressure.

What is a front?

A boundary between two air masses.

What causes clouds to form?

When air becomes saturated, water condenses on "nuclei," forming clouds.

What causes turbulence?

- Convective currents produced by uneven temperature distributions

- Obstructions to wind flow, such as those caused by topography and large buildings

- Wind shear

How can convective currents and turbulence form as a result of land features?

Barren land, rocks, sand, and concrete emits lots of heat. Less heat is given off over vegetation areas. Locally varying heating conditions causes currents and turbulence to form.

Updrafts tend to occur over barren land, and downdrafts over water, forests, and vegetation.

What does a thunderstorm require to form?

- moisture

- unstable air

- vertical movement

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

- cumulus: thunderstorm begins to form with vertical air movement

- mature: precipitation begins

- dissipating: rapid increase in precipitation followed by clouds dissipating

What is a squall line?

A squall line is a line of thunderstorms that can form along or ahead of a fast moving cold front.

What is the recommended distance to maintain from thunderstorms?

The AIM recommends 20 nmi. of distance at all times.

What is a microburst?

Small scale intense downdrafts from thunderstorms that spread outward in all directions when reaching the ground.

They can be identified by a ring of blowing dust.

What is the freezing level?

The altitude where snow, frost and ice are likely to develop. By definition, it is where the air temperature reaches 0 celcius.

What are the different types of icing that can form?

- Clear: heavy coating of glassy ice that forms over all aircraft surfaces.

- Rime: opaque ice forming on leading edges of wings, causing a rough surface

- Mixed: a combination of both rime and clear ice

What are the different types of fog?

Radiation Fog: heat absorbed by the earth during the day is radiated at night, cooling the surface. The air near the surface condenses, forming fog.

Advection Fog: warm, moist air passing over a cool surface. Typically occurs in coastal areas

Steam Fog - cold air flows over warm water causing evaporation

Upslope Fog - occurs when warm air is forced to rise over a cooler mountain

When does frost form?

When the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the freezing point, moisture sublimates from the air and is deposited as ice crystals.