Algebra II Final

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238 Terms

1
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An adaptation in which there is an increase in cell number is referred to as:

hyperplasia

2
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Programmed cell death is referred to as:

apoptosis

3
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Which of the following neutralizes reactive oxygen species:

Antioxidants (vitamin E or C, Cysteine)

4
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Metaplasia can lead to cancer:

True

5
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Which is not true of caseous necrosis:

True: Dead cells disintegrate but are not digested by hydrolases, Can be due to TB pulmonary infection, Combo of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis, Soft and granular like clumped cheese

6
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Nuclear pyknosis refers to:

Irreversible condensing and shrinkages of the cell's nucleus

7
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An increase in the size of the heart secondary to hypertension is an example of:

Hypertrophy

8
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Inflammation occurs with:

Necrosis

9
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Dysplasia frequently occurs next to cancer cells but is not an indicator of cancer:

False

10
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The pericardium surrounds which organ:

Heart

11
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Cephalic refers to the:

Head

12
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The popliteal area is located:

Behind the Knee

13
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The pleural membrane is located in the:

Lungs

14
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The process of the cell digesting or eating itself is referred to as:

Autophagy

15
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Most, but not all, substances are toxic.,

False

16
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An increase in superoxide dismutase would be expected to _______oxidative stress.

Reduce

17
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Regeneration of the liver in a transplant patient is an example of:

Compensatory hyperplasia

18
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Which of the following occurs as a result of lipases and the formation of soaps in the tissue:

Fat necrosis

19
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Posterior is synonymous with which term:

Dorsal

20
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Which transmitter is released at the somatic nervous system and the parasympathetic neuron:

Acetylcholine

21
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Stimulation of nicotinic receptors in the ganglia would:

Leads to depolarizatiotn and excitement which sends signals to the autonomic nervous system which allows body functions to occur

22
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Stimulation of the beta-1 receptor in the heart would:

Increase heart rate

23
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Miosis would occur with the activation of:

The parasympathetic nervous system in the sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris

24
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Bronchodilation occurs with the activation of which receptor:

Beta-2

25
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Survival functions (fight or flight) are mediated by the:

Sympathetic nervous system

26
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Stimulation of alpha receptors on blood vessels would produce:

Vasoconstriction (alpha-1)

27
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A patient is complaining of axillary pain. This pain would be located in which area:

Armpit

28
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Appendicitis would produce pain in which area:

Right iliac

29
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Blood is frequently drawn from which area in the body:

Antecubital

30
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In the Apothecary system, liquid measurements are based on the weight of one grain of wheat.

False

31
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A patient with splenomegaly would have:

Enlarged spleen

32
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WDWN refers to:

Well Developed, Well nourished

33
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The suffix -emia refers to:

Blood condition

34
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In the Apothecary system, Gt refers to:

Drop

35
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White blood cells are:

Leukocytes

36
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During necrosis, intracellular calcium levels _____.

Increase

37
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Epinephrine is released from the adrenal gland by activation of the:

Sympathetic Nervous System

38
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Alteration of p53 is associated with cancer.

True

39
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What triggers neoplastic changes in cells.

Mutations leading to abnormal cell growth

40
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Sarcoma begins in bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, blood vessels or other connective tissue.

True

41
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A tumor suppressor gene:

Helps prevent tumorigenesis. If turned off, then we get tumos

42
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Which statement is correct about hyperplasia:

Increased proliferation, cells appear normal - reversible

43
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What is correct regarding UV rays-induced melanoma:

Formation of pyrimidine dimers, individuals with defects in DNA excision repair are vulnerable, formation of squamous, basal and melanocarcinoma of the skin

44
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Which microorganism causes gastric and esophageal cancers:

H. Pylori

45
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Which is incorrect about the Log-Kill hypothesis:

CORRECT: first order, constant fraction being killed, not a specific number CORRECT: Chemo will kill a specific fraction of cells rather than a specific number

46
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What stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication in cancer cells occur:

S phase

47
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The process of tumor cells forming blood vessel like tubes by themselves is called:

Angiogenesis

48
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Tumor angiogenesis can be induced by:

Genetic changes, hypoxia, glucose deprivation, oxidative stress

49
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Hypertension is the class effect of anti-VEGF agents used for anti-angiogenic cancer therapy.

True

50
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Keytruda blocks PD-1 to induce immunotherapy of cancers. Here PD-1is:

Immune checkpoint receptor

51
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Which of the following is not an obstructive lung disease.

OLD: Asthma, COPD, Cystic fibrosis, TB. NOT OLD: Pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary hypertension, lung emergencies (COVID 19, pneumonia, ARDS, ARF, Aspiration)

52
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Type of dyspnea that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting upright is:

Orthopnea

53
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In cystic fibrosis, there is a failure of mucus to detach from ducts and slowed mucociliary transport.

True

54
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Atopy is a major risk factor for:

Asthma

55
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Which of the following can infect, survive, and proliferate within a macrophage.

Tuberculosis mycobacterium

56
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Plexiform (pediform) lesions is a classic pathophysiology of which lung disease:

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

57
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What is correct about latent tuberculosis:

Does not spread, does not show symptoms, positive skin test, can become active if left untreated

58
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Pulmonary arterial hypertension is primarily due to a pathology associated with the:

Right ventricle of the heart and lung. Arteries in the lungs and right side of the heart

59
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Raynaud's phenomenon is a sign/symptom of:

Pulmonary arterial hypertension

60
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Which of the following is caused by the passage of solid particles into the lung:

Aspiration

61
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Hyaline membrane is composed of:

Proteins and dead cells

62
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Aspiration can lead to bacterial pneumonia:

True

63
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Which SARS-CoV2 protein binds to host cell ACE-2 to gain cellular entry:

Spike (S) Protein

64
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Which of the following have been prescribed for SARS-CoV2 treatment:

Paxlovid

65
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The thyroid follicle is a functional unit of the thyroid gland and is responsible for thyroid hormone synthesis:

True

66
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Hashimoto's disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroid disease.

False

67
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Thyroiditis is caused by an attack on the thyroid, which includes antibodies, viruses, bacteria and certain drugs.

True

68
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Which of the following is considered primary hypothyroidism:

Decreased productions of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland causing an increase in TSH

69
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Which is not the common condition or problem that leads to hypothyroidism:

Grave's . Common conditions: Hashimoto's, thyroiditis, medicine, radiation therapy, thyroid surgery

70
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Which of the following protein is directly involved in the action of thyroid hormone:

Thyroid receptor hormone (PR)

71
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An increase in plasma creatinine and BUN would suggest that renal function had ___:

Decreased

72
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The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is:

Diabetes mellitus

73
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The best assessment of renal function is:

GFR

74
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Oliguria refers to:

Abnormally low urine output as a result of decreased GFR

75
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Patients with chronic kidney disease are susceptible to:

Vomiting, diarrhea, fever, extracellular depletion

76
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Alteration of renal blood flow would most likely produce which type of renal injury:

Pre-renal

77
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Uremic frost refers to:

Symptom of CKD where sweat evaporates and leaves urea which leaves a fluffy residue

78
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The majority of hypertensive patients are classified as:

Primary

79
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Which of the following describes the heart at rest:

Diastole

80
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Martha's blood pressure is 150/95. She would be classified as having:

Stage 2 hypertension

81
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Erythropoitin is:

Produced by the kidney, feedback loop that stimulates RBC production in the bone marrow

82
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Which of the following is an excess of red blood cells:

Erythrocytosis (Polycythemia)

83
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Pulmonary edema and orthopnea are symptoms associated with:

Left sided heart failure

84
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The initiating factor for the development of atherosclerotic plaques is:

Infiltration of LDL into subendothelial cells. Endothelial injury/dysfunction

85
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Angina pectoris occurs due to blockade of which blood vessels:

Coronary arteries

86
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Decreased HDL _______the risk of coronary artery disease.

increases

87
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Release of histamine is a major factor in which type of shock.

Anaphylactic shocker

88
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Ascites is more likely associated with:

Right sided heart failure

89
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Backflow through a heart valve is referred to as:

regurgitation

90
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Ralph is experiencing chest pain while playing pickle ball. He would most likely have:

Angina pectoris

91
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A patient presents a prescription for a statin drug. This patient most likely has:

High LDL levels, hyperlipidemia. Atherosclerosis

92
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A person with untreated hypertension for several years could experience which symptoms:

None. Headache, fatigue, dizziness, no more common than in people with normal BP. Could lead to stroke, heart attack, left ventricular hypertrophy, kidney damage, etc.

93
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A patient with thrombocytopenia would be susceptible to:

Bleeding out (low platelet count), hemorrhage, bruising

94
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Which of the following is known as the "silent killer':

Hypertension

95
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During shock, blood flow to the kidneys:

Decreases

96
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Which of the following is associated with the formation of blood clots that can lead to stroke and is often treated with an anticoagulant:

Atrial fibrillation

97
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During the development of heart failure, the renin angiotensin system is activated and results in:

Sodium/water retention, vasoconstriction, increased aldosterone secretion, increased Na+ reabsorption, and increased K+ secretion

98
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Tachycardia refers to:

Elevated heart rate

99
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Hypertension-induced heart failure is due to:

Long term force of blood against artery wall. Left ventricular hypertrophy

100
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Ron is experiencing hypovolemic shock and would exhibit all of the following except:

Things experienced: Hypertension, Cold, pale clammy skin, intense thirst, rapid respiration, restlessness, torpor, dec urine vol, and rapid pulse. Tachy to brady to tachy. Vasoconstriction in the kidney=decreased glomerular filtration