Network & Security Foundations Exam Test Question

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82 Terms

1
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A router's primary purpose in a network is:

To route data packets between multiple networks

2
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Highlight a principal advantage of Software as a Service (SaaS).

No need for individual installations or updates

3
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Which command is employed for DNS resolution of a domain name to its IP address?

nslookup

4
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In which network topology do packets navigate device-to-device until reaching their destination?

Ring

5
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Within a client/server architecture, the role of client devices is to:

Request and utilize server-provided services

6
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To verify a computer's network connection and responsiveness, which command is suitable for a network technician?

ping

7
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In Peer-to-Peer (P2P) architecture, configuration is:

Decentralized, with each device requiring individual configuration

8
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At which OSI model layer does the MAC (Media Access Control) Address operate?

data link layer

9
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To obtain the IP Address of a Windows machine, which command is necessary?

ipconfig

10
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Identify the network type connecting computer networks and LANs across broad geographical expanses.

wide Area Network (WAN).

11
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Which cloud service model fits best for software development entities aiming to build and test applications without handling the underlying Infrastructure?

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

12
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Which situation are STP cables preferred over UTP cables?

In environments with significant electromagnetic interference

13
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To follow the journey of packets from origin to destination on Windows, which command is applied?

tracert

14
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The Presentation layer's role in the OSI model includes:

Formatting, encrypting, and decrypting data

15
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What does Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) offer consumers?

16
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Compared to Twisted Pair cables, fiber optic cables offer:

Enhanced data transmission speed and extended cabling distance

17
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A network topology where all nodes are connected to a central device is known as:

star

18
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What function does a firewall serve in a network?

Traffic filtration in accordance with rule sets

19
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Put the OSI layers in the correct order starting with Layer 7 and going down.

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical.

20
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To inspect active TCP connections on a Windows PC, which command is appropriate for a network admin?

netstat

21
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For gigabit network compatibility, the minimum Ethernet cable category required is:

Category 5e

22
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In cloud computing, what defines the hybrid cloud model in terms of where IT assets are located?

Mix of on-premises and cloud-based services for IT assets

23
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To obtain a Linux machine's IP Address, which command must a network admin execute?

ifconfig

24
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In the TCP/IP model, which OSI layers are merged into the Application layer?

Session, Presentation, and Application layers

25
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Comparing device roles in P2P and client/server networks regarding resource sharing:

In P2P, devices serve dual roles; in client/server, roles are more strictly defined

26
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To display the mapping of IP Addresses to MAC Addresses on a Windows system, which command should be used?

arp

27
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How is a community cloud defined?

Shared among multiple organizations with similar objectives

28
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Which network type is commonly employed for device interconnection within a single building?

A local area network (LAN)

29
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Which network type is used for short-distance device communication, such as connecting wireless earbuds to a smartphone?

Personal Area Network (PAN)

30
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An IP Address functions at which OSI model layer?

Network layer

31
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To link multiple buildings, which network type is utilized?

campus area network (CAN)

32
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Define a Type 1 hypervisor.

Direct hardware-level virtualization management software

33
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Identify a type of UTP cable

Cat6 cable

34
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At which OSI model layer does connection management (connection establishment, maintenance, and teardown) with remote devices occur?

Presentation layer

35
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How do OSI and TCP/IP model layer counts compare?

The OSI model has seven layers, while the TCP/IP model has four or five layers

36
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In a client/server architecture, the configuration is:

Centralized, with configuration performed on a central server and disseminated to all devices

37
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What distinguishes a public cloud model?

Accessible over the public internet to anyone interested in subscribing

38
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Which cloud deployment often utilizes exclusive (non-shared) hardware?

Private cloud

39
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For wireless LAN connectivity, which device is typically used?

WAP

40
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Which network topology enables multiple data paths between any two devices to safeguard against link failure?

Mesh

41
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Which type of DoS attack involves sending oversized or malformed ping packets to crash the target system?

Ping of Death

42
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Which exploit includes using breaching the network cable and using a packet sniffer to listen and record the traffic on the network?

Wiretapping

43
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Checksums and cryptographic hashes are primarily used to ensure:

integrity

44
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During a penetration test, the tester uses a well-known software tool to gain unauthorized access to the network. This tool is considered:

an exploit

45
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How does Zero Trust handle internal and external threats?

Treats all network traffic with the same level of suspicion

46
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What best describes RBAC (Role-Based Access Control)?

A system where access controls are based on the job function of users within an organization

47
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In a secure email exchange, if Alice wants to ensure only Bob can read her message, she should encrypt it using which key?

Bob’s public key

48
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A user must enter a security question answer to retrieve a forgotten password. This form of authentication relies on:

Something you know

49
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Tom is trying to access a sensitive report from his company's server. Which part of the AAA framework is responsible for verifying Tom's credentials before granting access?

Authentication

50
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A network administrator sets up a firewall to block all incoming connections that do not originate from within the network. Which type of firewall can check whether a packet is part of an established connection?

Stateful inspection firewall

51
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Which of the following is NOT typically considered a part of device hardening?

Increasing the number of open ports

52
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For data that is at rest, what is the best method to protect the confidentiality of data?

Encryption

53
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Place the wireless encryptions in order from the weakest to the strongest

wep,wpa,wpa2,wpa3

54
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A university's IT department suspects a rogue access point may be operating on campus. What should they implement?

A Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS)

55
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In the context of IT security, separation of duties is essential because it:

Helps prevent any one individual from having too much control over a critical process

56
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A mobile banking app is designed to terminate all active sessions and require re-authentication after detecting any unauthorized access attempts. What principle does this illustrate?

Fail-safe

57
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At a software company, which of the following practices best exemplifies separation of duties in incident response?

One team detects and reports security incidents, while a different team analyzes and responds to these incidents.

58
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If a company installs a state-of-the-art firewall, it is primarily engaged in:

Risk mitigation

59
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An organization is setting up a firewall capable of analyzing individual packets and the association in which these packets are grouped. Which type of access control is being utilized?

Context-based

60
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What distinguishes asymmetric encryption from symmetric encryption?

Employs different keys for encryption and decryption

61
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An organization requires a firewall that can allow or deny packets based on administrator-defined rules for IP addresses and protocols. Which type should they use?

Packet filtering firewall

62
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In an information security policy document, what must each sub-policy clearly contain to meet compliance and clarity requirements?

The specific compliance obligations the sub-policy fulfills

63
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A large number of ICMP Echo requests originating from a spoofed IP address are flooding a network. What traditional network security tool can help mitigate this type of ICMP Ping flood attack?

Firewall with ICMP filtering capabilities

64
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Which strong wireless encryption protocol uses the same encryption key for all device on the wireless network?

WPA2

65
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A company develops an encryption software that uses a simple, well-understood algorithm instead of multiple complex algorithms. This strategy primarily enhances security through which principle?

Economy of Mechanism

66
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During a security review, the IT department uses records to track back an unauthorized data breach to a specific user's account. Which AAA service provides this capability?

Accounting

67
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A large e-commerce company, preparing for an upcoming holiday sale, is concerned about the potential for DoS/DDoS attacks that could disrupt their services. What is the most effective strategy they should implement to mitigate the risk of such attacks?

Monitor normal traffic patterns

68
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An organization is adjusting its information security policies to adhere to the requirements of the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA).

Under PIPEDA, what is the organization required to do?

Establish adequate security measures for the protection of stored personal data

69
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A company’s security policy requires that all incoming and outgoing messages be inspected for harmful content like viruses and spyware before they reach the desktops. Which firewall should they deploy?

application level firewall

70
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A local library has previously fallen victim to war chalking, where unauthorized individuals marked the exterior with symbols indicating an unsecured Wi-Fi network. To prevent future incidents and secure their network against unauthorized access, what should the library implement?

Implement WPA2 or WPA3 wireless encryption

71
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What layer of protection could be considered the last line of defense in a well-implemented security in depth strategy?

data encryption at rest

72
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Tom accesses his workplace computer using a fingerprint scan. The security system he interacts with uses which type of authentication?

something you are

73
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Which technology is essential for achieving effective Zero Trust architecture?

MFA

74
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What capability does an IPS have that an IDS lacks?

Blocking detected threats automatically

75
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According to the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA), personal information must be protected by:

Appropriate security safeguards

76
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What is a primary reason attackers set up rogue access points in public places like cafes and airports?

To capture personal and financial information from unsuspecting users

77
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A software developer attempts to access the customer database but is denied. What part of the AAA framework is responsible for this decision?

authorization

78
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What distinguishes DAC (Discretionary Access Control) from other access control models?

it allows file owners to control access

79
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After implementing a mandatory complex password policy, a company notices many employees writing down their passwords. The company decides to allow less complex passwords with two-factor authentication to ensure the authentication system is more user-friendly. Which principle is being reinforced?

Psychological acceptability

80
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What are the two wireless infrastructure modes?

infrastructure and ad hoc

81
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If a small business owner chooses to ignore minor security risks associated with a less critical part of the business because the cost to address them would outweigh the potential loss, what is this an example of?

risk acceptance

82
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.A network firewall analyzes each packet against a set of security criteria, such as source IP Address, destination IP address, or port number before deciding to allow or block. This approach is known as:

rule-based access control