Surgical Nursing Block 1

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Last updated 6:51 AM on 6/6/23
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249 Terms

1
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What is "-ectomy?"
To remove or excise
2
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What is "-otomy?"
To cut into
-incision
3
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What is "-ostomy?"
Surgical creation of an artificial opening
4
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What is "-rrhaphy?"
Surgical repair by suturing
5
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What is "-pexy?"
Surgical fixation
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What is "-plasty?"
Surgical alteration of shape or form
7
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What is hemostasis?
Stoppage of bleeding
8
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What is an onchyectomy?
Declaw removal
9
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What are two coagulation products used for hemostasis in surgery?
Gel foam and Bone wax
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What is a ligation?
Tying off of a blood vessel or duct with sutures
11
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What is a ligasure?
A vessel sealing by pressure/energy
12
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What are the three phases of wound healing?
1. Inflammatory Phase
2. Repair Phase
3. Remodeling Phase
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What is the body's initial response to both vascular and cellular injury?
Inflammation!!
- protects against foreign material and sets up tissue repair
14
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What takes place during the inflammatory phase?
Vessels vasoconstrict to control hemorrhage, then vasodilation to allow antibodies, nutrients, and WBCs into damaged tissue
15
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Approximately how much blood does a 4x4 gauze absorb?
5-10 mL [10mL]
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Granulation tissue appears in what phase of wound healing?
Repair Phase
17
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What occurs during the repair phase?
Capillaries begin growing into damaged tissue, and fibroblasts now can enter damaged tissue and begin producing collagen fibers
- Collagen fiber makes up scar tissue
18
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What does the remodeling phase consist of?
Rearrangement of the collagen fibers in the skin for the final stage of wound healing
19
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How long after injury does the remodeling phase start?
Starts 4 weeks after the initial injury
20
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What are the three types of wound healing?
1st - Intention Healing (minimal tissue damage, debriding skin edges)
2nd - Intention Healing (scab)
3rd - Intention Healing (granulation bed, sutured closed)
21
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What is the golden rule for laceration wounds?
(AKA-What's the longest a wound can stay open before it needs to be closed?)
Laceration should be closed within 6 HOURS of injury to get ideal healing and less chance of infection
22
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What are the preanesthetic diagnostic tests you need to do?
1. Bloodwork
2. X-ray
3. EKG
23
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What is asepsis?
Freedom from infection from bacteria, viruses, and microorganisms
24
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True or False: Endogenous microorganisms cannot really be prevented.
True
25
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What are endogenous microorganisms?
Microorganisms that originate from inside the patient
26
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What are exogenous microorganisms?
Microorganisms that originate from the environment
27
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Development of infection depends on what two thingS?
Balance of virulence of the organism and resistance of the patient
28
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What can cause post surgical wound infections?
1. Poor tissue handling
2. Airborne bacteria on the skin
29
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What is sterilization?
Complete destruction of all living organisms
30
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What are types of sterilization?
1. Autoclave - steam
2. Dry Heat - glass objects
3. Gas Sterilization - Ethylene Oxide
4. Radiation Sterilization - Cobalt 60
5. Antiseptics
6. Disinfectants
31
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What flammable and toxic gas is used for sterilization?
Ethylene Oxide
32
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True or False: Ethylene oxide is safe on rubber and plastic
True
33
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What temperature does an autoclave have to be set at for sterilization?
121 C for at least 15 mins
34
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How often should sterile double wrapped materials be re-sterilized if unused?
Every 7 weeks
35
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How often should sterile single wrapped materials be re-sterilized if unused?
Every 4 weeks
36
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What disinfectant is used for cold sterilization?
Ceytylcide
(Soak for 10 mins)
37
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What pH does scrubbing detergent need to be for surgical instruments?
Neutral pH to prevent corrosion and rusting - Alconox
38
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Why shouldn't we use substances such as Chlorhexidine or Betadine for scrubbing surgical instruments?
Overtime they will cause corrosion
39
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What is the purpose of draping?
To protect exposed tissues from contamination, from the surrounding skin
40
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True or False: Chlorhex in contact with the eye can cause damage to the cornea
True
41
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What is the purpose of an Ultrasonic?
Uses vibrations to break apart small particles of organic cells from instruments after surgery (5-10 mins)
42
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What has better residual effect, Betadine (Povidone) or Chlorhexadine?
Chlorhexadine
43
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What is the time period for an Ultrasonic?
5-10 mins
44
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How long should surgical instruments be lubricated with milk after washing?
Lubricate after washing for 30 secs
45
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How long should food/water be withheld before surgery?
Food withheld 12 hours before surgery.
Water withheld 3-4 hours before surgery.
46
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How long should hands and arms be surgically scrubbed?
Scrub 5-10 mins; 3-5 mins after the first surgery
47
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Where should you keep your hands after sterile scrubbing?
Keep hands elevated between waist and shoulder level
48
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True or False: It's okay to pass in between the patient and the surgeon.
False; never pass between scrubbed personnel and the patient
49
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What are 4 post-operative complications?
1. Hemorrhage
2. Seroma
3. Infection
4. Wound Dehiscence
50
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What is wound dehiscence?
Reopening of a surgical incision
(First signs usually appear within 3-4 days post surgery)
51
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How long until sutures should be removed after surgery?
10-14 days
52
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What are the three ways to close an incision?
1. Skin sutures
2. Skin staples
3. Skin glue - Cyanoacrylate
53
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What are signs of infection?
1. Pain
2. Swelling
3. Warm to touch
4. Erythema
54
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True or False: Animals may be painful for up to 3 days after surgery.
True - 3 days is the average for pain to last
55
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How long are sutures left in for?
10-14 days
56
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What is evisceration?
Disembowelment
57
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What is seroma?
The accumulation of serious fluid in dead space in the region of an incision
58
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What is main cause of seroma?
Over activity
59
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What is Hypothermia?
Body temperature less than 99 degrees Fahrenheit
60
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What are some adverse affects of hypothermia?
1. Hypotension
2. Poor clotting or coagulation
3. Delayed healing and infection
4. Delays excretion of anesthesia agents and prolongs recovery
61
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True or False: Hypothermia delays healing
True
62
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What stage of anesthesia is known as the "excitatory phase?"
Stage II
63
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What are some ways to prevent hypothermia?
1. Towels and blankets coverage
2. Bear Hugger
3. Heated surgical table
4. Warm water circulating blanket
5. Wrap their feet to avoid heat loss
6. Decrease oxygen flow rate
7. Warm IV lines or IV bags
8. Esophageal Warmer
64
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Each additional minute of anesthesia time increases the risk of skin infection by \_____ % ??
0.5%
65
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What are we preventing by stopping food 12 hours before surgery?
Aspiration pneumonia
66
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What is surgical anesthesia fluid rate?
10 ml/kg/hr (Now *5 ml/kg/hr* in lab)
67
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What does ASA stand for?
Anesthesia Society Association
-ASA Tables distinguish classifications of the patient's risk under anesthesia
68
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What is analgesia?
Loss of sensation to pain
69
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What is anesthesia?
Total loss of sensation to the body induced by drugs that depress the CNS
70
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What is the difference between general anesthesia and surgical anesthesia?
Both are loss of sensation and consciousness, but only surgical anesthesia comes with muscle relaxation and analgesia
71
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What is catalepsy?
State of unresponsiveness and rigid limbs
72
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What is hypnosis?
Artificially induced sleep
73
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What is dissociative anesthesia?
CNS state characterized by catalepsy and analgesia
74
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What is narcosis?
Drug induced stupor or sedation
75
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What is neuroleptanalgesia?
Hypnosis and analgesia
76
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What is tranquilization?
State of calmness in which the patient is awake and unconcerned with its surrounding
77
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What is sedation?
Mild degree of CNS depression which can be awaken by stimuli
78
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MAP should never fall below what number during anesthesia?
No MAP below < 60 mmHg; lower anesthesia
79
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Nystagmus eye position is a sign of what anesthesia plane?
Stage II and Stage III (Plane 1)
80
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Ventral eye position is a sign of what anesthesia plane?
Stage II - Plane II
81
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True or False: Central eye position indicated the patient is too deep under anesthesia.
True
82
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What reflexes are present in Stage III - Plane II anesthesia?
Patellar, ear flick, palpebral, and corneal
83
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Patients with low-grade heart murmurs and cardiac diseases are what class risk on the ASA table?
Class III Risk
84
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How long does pain last for on average?
Pain lasts for 3 days
85
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What are the two types of pain?
1. Somatic - pain arising from skin, muscle, bone, and joints
2. Visceral - Pain arising from internal organs
86
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What are clinical signs of pain?
1. Vocalizing
2. Body Posture (hunching, shaking, stiff)
3. Activity
4. No appetite
5. No urination/defecation
87
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What does multimodal analgesia do?
Interrupts pain pathway at various points
88
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What is the transduction pain pathway?
Pain stimulus sensation to CNS
-Local Anesthesia
89
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What is the transmission pain pathway?
Pain impulse to spinal cord
-Local Anesthesia
90
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What is the modulation pain pathway?
Sorting of pain stimuli in spinal cord
-Opioids
91
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What is the perception pain pathway?
Only in conscious patients, knowing pain is present and reacting as vocalization or withdrawal reflex
-Tranquilizers
92
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True or False: Pain slows down recovery and healing.
True
93
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What are some commonly used opioids?
1. Oxymorphone
2. Hydromophone
3. Fentanyl
4. Butorphenol
5. Buprenorphine
6. Morphine
7. Tramadol (not controlled)
94
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What opioid is commonly used as epidural route and commonly sent home with cats?
Buprenorphine
95
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True or False: Morphine causes vomiting.
True
96
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True or False: It is okay to use Butorphanol with Fentanyl
False; It is NOT okay to use Butorphanol with Fentanyl. Butorphanol block the action of Fentanyl.
97
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What opioid may be used as a transdermal patch, or administered in an IV drip?
Fentanyl
98
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What are side effects of fentanyl?
1. Profound sedation
2. Bradycardia
3. Respiratory Distress
4. Hyperexcitation in cats
99
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How long does a fentanyl patch last?
3-5 days
100
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What is Trazadone and what does it do?
It is a serotonin antagonist reuptake inhibitor. It increases serotonin levels in the brain and inhibits perception of pain.