Module 1-4

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283 Terms

1

What is the shape and Gram reaction of Staphylococcus?

Perfectly spherical Gram (+) cocci

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2

How do Staphylococcus bacteria grow?

In clusters like a bunch of grapes

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3

What are the two pigmented colony types of Staphylococcus?

S. aureus - golden yellow and S. epidermidis - white

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4

Where is S. aureus commonly found?

Nasal passages, skin, oral cavity, and intestinal tract

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5

Where is S. epidermidis commonly found?

On the skin

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6

What surface proteins promote colonization in Staphylococcus?

Fibronectin,Fibrinogen/fibrin binding (clumping factor),Collagen-binding factor

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7

It is Present on epithelial and endothelial surfaces and as a component of blood clots.

Fibronectin

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8

What is the function of fibrinogen binding in Staphylococcus attachment?

Promotes attachment to blood clots and traumatized tissues

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9

What is a major factor in Staphylococcus infections related to medical devices?

Biofilm formation on implanted materials

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10

True or false?

If material is in the body for long periods, fibrinogen is degraded and no longer promote bacterial attachment

True

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11

True or false?

Fibronectin becomes less predominant ligand promoting attachment.

False,They become more predominant

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12

What are the two factors that inhibit phagocytosis in Staphylococcus?

Capsule and Protein A

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13

What is do you called the capsule of Staphylococcus?

Capsular polysaccharide

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14

What is the main function of Protein A in S. aureus?

Binds IgG the wrong way

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15

What toxin specifically acts on polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

Leukocidin

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16

It is Responsible for symptoms during infections and Membrane damaging toxins

Protein Toxins

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17

What is the most potent membrane-damaging toxin in Staphylococcus?

Alpha-toxin

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18

True or false?

Human platelets and monocytes have high affinity to toxin.

True

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19

(A-toxin) A complex series of secondary reactions cause release of ________ and ________ which trigger the production of inflammatory.

eicosanoids and Cytokines

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20

What is the main function of Beta-toxin?

Damages membranes rich in sphingomyelin

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21

Classical test is the lysis of ___________, at 4’C-15’C produces incomplete hot-cold lysis

sheep RBC

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22

What does Delta-toxin act as?

A phospholipase

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23

Small peptide toxin produced by most strains of S. aureus

Delta-toxin

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24

What do Gamma-toxin and leucocidin do?

Damage membranes of susceptible cells

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25

What are the three proteins expressed by Gamma-toxin and leucocidin?

B and C proteins.

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26

Which combination of proteins is hemolytic and weakly leukotoxic?

A and B proteins.

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27

How does Panton-Valentine (PV) leucocidin differ from other leukotoxins?

PV leucocidin has potent leukotoxicity but is non-hemolytic.

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28

What genetic locus differentiates PV leucocidin from other leukotoxins?

The gamma locus.

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29

What are the two major superantigens in Staphylococcus?

Enterotoxins,TSST-1

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30

What does enterotoxin cause?

Diarrhea and vomiting (staphylococcal food poisoning)

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31

What is TSST-1 responsible for?

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)

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32

What toxin causes scalded skin syndrome in neonates?

Epidermolytic (exfoliative) toxin (ET)

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33

What are the two forms of Epidermolytic toxin?

ETA and ETB

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34

It is the possibly the toxin targets a specific protein involved in maintaining the integrity of the epidermis and do Protease activity?

Epidermolytic (exfoliative) toxin (ET)

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35

What is the function of coagulase in S. aureus?

Binds prothrombin to form staphylothrombin leading to fibrin clot formation

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36

What is the traditional marker for identifying Staphylococcus aureus?

Coagulase

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37

What is the function of staphylokinase?

Activates plasmin-like proteolytic activity to dissolve fibrin clots

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38

It acts as Plasminogen activator and Complex formed between staphylokinase and plasminogen

Staphylokinase

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39

What is the role of staphylothrombin in the coagulation process?

It activates the protease activity of thrombin, leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and clot formation.

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40

What are three important enzymes in Staphylococcus virulence?

Proteases, Lipases,DNase

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41

What is the function of fatty acid modifying enzyme (FAME)?

Modifies antibacterial lipids to prolong bacterial survival

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42

What is the function of hyaluronidase?

Hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid (cementing substance)

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43

What is the most important coagulase-negative Staphylococcus?

S. epidermidis

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44

What infections are commonly caused by S. epidermidis?

Infections associated with prosthetic devices and catheters

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45

What is the characteristic of S. epidermidis biofilm?

Produces slime (biofilm)

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46

How does S. aureus differ from S. epidermidis in fermentation?

S. aureus ferments mannitol

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47

What is a common habitat for S. intermedius?

Dogs and carnivores

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48

What disease does S. hyicus cause in swine?

Exudative epidermitis

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49

What disease does S. aureus cause in horses?

Botryomycosis

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50

What disease does S. aureus cause in cattle?

Mastitis

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51

What disease does S. aureus cause in lambs?

Tick pyemia

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52

What disease does S. aureus cause in turkeys?

Purulent synovitis (Bumblefoot)

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53

What disease does S. aureus cause in rabbits?

Cutaneous staphylococcosis

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54

What is the main disease caused by S. epidermidis?

Opportunistic infections in prosthetic devices

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55

What disease is caused by Staphylococcus hyicus subsp. hyicus in swine?

Exudative epidermitis (greasy pig disease).

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56

What is the main species affected by Staphylococcus hyicus subsp. hyicus?

Swine (pigs).

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57

What nutrient is required for the growth of Staphylococcus hyicus subsp. hyicus?

Biotin.

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58

What are the five main diagnostic tests for Staphylococcus?

Smears,Blood Agar Plate (BAP),Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA),Coagulase Test,DNase Test

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59

What does the Coagulase Test differentiate?

S. aureus (coagulase +)

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60

What does Mannitol Salt Agar differentiate?

S. aureus (mannitol fermenter) and S. epidermidis (non-fermenter)

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61

Why is there no effective vaccine for Staphylococcus infections?

Due to high antigenic variability and immune evasion mechanisms

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62

What are the two main mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance in Staphylococcus?

Beta-lactamase production,Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)

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63

What is the significance of MRSA?

It exhibits multiple-drug resistance and is difficult to treat

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64

What is the shape and arrangement of Streptococcus?

Non-motile, non-sporeforming coccus in pairs or chains

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65

Does Streptococcus produce catalase?

Catalase (-)

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66

What is the oxygen requirement of Streptococcus?

Facultative anaerobe

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67

Where is Streptococcus commonly found?

Mucous membranes, intestines, milk

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68

Who proposed the classification of Streptococcus?

Sherman

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69

What are the four major groups of Streptococcus based on their characteristics?

Pyogenic, Viridans, Lactic, and Enterococcus.

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70

What does the term 'Viridans' refer to in Viridans streptococci?

It refers to the greenish (alpha) hemolysis they produce on blood agar.

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71

What are the four groups in Sherman’s classification?

Pyogenic, Viridans, Lactic, Enterococcus

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72

Which Streptococcus group is primarily associated with milk and dairy products?

Lactic group.

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73

Which group of Streptococcus primarily affects the intestines?

Enterococcus group.

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74

What is the basis of Lancefield classification?

Serologically active carbohydrate (C substance)

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75

How many groups are in Lancefield classification?

Six main groups (A, B, C, D, E, N) plus 14 additional groups

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76

Where is the carbohydrate antigen found in Streptococcus?

Cell wall or between cell wall and membrane (teichoic acid)

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77

What is required for Streptococcus growth fast?

Enrichment with blood and serum

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78

How do Streptococcus colonies appear?

Small, delicate, translucent colonies

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79

What substance does Streptococcus produce in milk?

Lactic acid

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80

What is the function of the hyaluronic acid capsule?

Interferes with phagocytosis

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81

What is the role of Protein M?

Responsible for virulence and inhibits phagocytosis

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82

It is a type-specific immunity,inhibits phagocytosis, immunotoxic effect on polymorphs and platelets

Protein M

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83

What structure helps Streptococcus attach to epithelial cells?

Lipoteichoic acid in hair-like fimbriae

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84

Which hemolysins are produced by Streptococcus?

Streptolysin O and Streptolysin S

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85

Which Streptolysin is oxygen-sensitive and elicits neutralizing antibodies?

Streptolysin O

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86

Which Streptolysin is Oxygen-stable, non-antigenic?

Streptolysin S

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87

What is the function of Streptokinase?

Activates plasminogen to plasmin, digesting fibrin clots

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88

What is the function of DNases (A, B, C, D)?

extracellular enzymes, reduce viscosity of pus by degrading DNA

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89

What is the role of Hyaluronidase?

Promotes spread of infection in tissues

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90

It is responsible for rashes in scarlet fever

Erythrogenic toxin A

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91

What does NADase do?

Kills phagocytes

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92

What is the function of Proteinase?

Broad substrate specificity produced by Group A streptococci

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93

What test identifies S. agalactiae?

CAMP test

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94

What is the characteristic color of Streptococcus agalactiae growth on a solid medium containing starch?

Brick red

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95

What is the habitat of S. agalactiae?

Mammary glands of cows, sheep, and goats

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96

How is S. agalactiae spread?

Milker’s hands, contaminated machines, calf mouths

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97

What is a key symptom of S. agalactiae infection?

Inflammation and fibrosis in mammary glands

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98

True or false

Milk becomes alkaline, because WBC count exceeds 500,000/ml, milk reduced, thin, and watery by S. agalactiae

True

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99

What disease does S. dysgalactiae cause?

Acute severe mastitis

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100

What Lancefield group does S. dysgalactiae belong to?

Group C

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